SAT-Practice-Test-2-with-Answer-Key-and-Scoring-Info.pdf

829925

The

SAT®

Practice

Test #

Make time to take the practice test.

one

the

best

ways

get

ready

for

the

SAT.

After you have taken the practice test, score

right away

sat.org/scoring.

This version

the

SAT

Practice

Test

for students

who

will

taking

the digital

SAT

nondigital format.

11111111111111111111111

I I

Ill

(:}

CollegeBoard

6TSL03

829925

6TSL03

Test begins on the next page.

Module

Reading and Writing

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

reading and

writing

skills.

Each

question includes one

more passages, which may include a table or graph.

Read

each passage

and question carefully, and then choose

the

best answer

the

question based on

the

passage(s).

All questions in this section are

multiple

-choice

with

four

answer choices.

Each

question

has

single best answer.

---------~ ---------~

As Mexico’s first president from an Indigenous

community, Benito Juarez

became one of the most

______ figures in his country’s history: among the

many significant accomplishments

of his long tenure

in office (1858–1872), Juarez consolidated the

authority of the national government and advanced

the rights of Indigenous peoples.

Which choice completes the

text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) unpredictable

B) important

C) secretive

D) ordinary

......................................................................................................................................................................................................

Due to their often strange images, highly

experimental

syntax, and opaque subject matter,

many of John Ashbery’s poems can be quite difficult

______ and thus are the object of heated debate

among scholars.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) delegate

B) compose

C) interpret

D) renounce

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

The Cambrian explosion gets its name from the

sudden appearance and rapid diversification

animal remains in the fossil record about 541 million

years ago, during the Cambrian period. Some

scientists argue that this ______ change in the fossil

record might be because

of a shift in many organisms

to body types that were more likely to be preserved.

Which choice completes the text

with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) catastrophic

B) elusive

C) abrupt

D) imminent

During a 2014 archaeological

dig in Spain,

Vicente

Lull and his team uncovered the skeleton of

a woman from El Algar, an Early Bronze Age society,

buried with valuable objects signaling a high position

of power. This finding may persuade researchers who

have argued that Bronze Age societies were ruled by

men to ______ that women may have also held

leadership roles.

Which choice completes

the text

with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) waive

B) concede

C) refute

D) require

Within baleen whale

species, some individuals

develop

an accessory spleen—a seemingly

functionless formation of splenetic tissue outside

the normal spleen. Given the formation’s greater

prevalence among whales known to make deeper

dives, some researchers hypothesize that its role isn’t

______; rather, the accessory spleen may actively

support diving mechanisms.

Which choice

completes the text

with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) replicable

B) predetermined

C) operative

D) latent

According to a US tax policy expert, state taxes are

______

other factors when considering

an interstate

move. Even significant differences in state taxation

have almost no effect on most people’s decisions,

while differences in employment opportunities,

housing availability, and climate are strong

influences.

Which choice completes the text

with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) consistent with

B) representative of

C) overshadowed by

D) irrelevant to

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

The author’s claim about the relationship between

Neanderthals and Homo sapiens is ______, as it

fails to account

for several recent archaeological

discoveries. To be convincing, his argument would

need to address recent finds of additional hominid

fossils, such as the latest Denisovan specimens and

Homo longi.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) disorienting

B) tenuous

C) nuanced

D) unoriginal

The following text is from

Georgia Douglas

Johnson’s

1922 poem “Benediction.”

Go forth, my son,

Winged by my heart’s desire!

Great reaches, yet unknown,

Await

For your possession.

I may not, if I would,

Retrace the way with you,

My pilgrimage is through,

But life is calling you!

Which choice best states the main purpose of the

text?

A) To express hope that a child will have the same

accomplishments as his parent did

B) To suggest that raising a child involves many

struggles

C) To warn a child that he will face many challenges

throughout his life

D) To encourage a child to embrace the experiences

life will offer

The following text is adapted from Indian

Boyhood,

a 1902 memoir by Ohiyesa (Charles A. Eastman), a

Santee Dakota writer. In the text, Ohiyesa recalls how

the women in his tribe harvested maple syrup during

his childhood.

Now the women began to test the trees—moving

leisurely among them, axe in hand, and striking

a single quick blow, to see if the sap would

appear. The trees, like people, have their

individual characters; some were ready to yield

up their life-blood, while others were more

reluctant. Now one of the birchen basins was set

under each tree, and a hardwood chip driven

deep into the cut which the axe had made. From

the corners of this chip—at first drop by drop,

then more freely—the sap trickled into the little

dishes.

Which choice best describes the function of the

underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It portrays the range of personality traits

displayed by the women as they work.

B) It foregrounds the beneficial relationship

between humans and maple trees.

C) It demonstrates how human behavior can be

influenced by the natural environment.

D) It elaborates on an aspect of the maple trees that

the women evaluate.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

Text 1

Ecologists have long wondered how thousands of

microscopic phytoplankton species can live together

near ocean surfaces competing for the same

resources. According to conventional wisdom, one

species should emerge after outcompeting the rest.

So why do so many species remain? Ecologists’ many

efforts to explain this phenomenon still haven’t

uncovered a satisfactory explanation.

Text 2

Ecologist Michael Behrenfeld and colleagues have

connected phytoplankton’s diversity to their

microscopic size. Because these organisms are so

tiny, they are spaced relatively far apart from each

other in ocean water and, moreover, experience that

water as a relatively dense substance. This in turn

makes it hard for them to move around and interact

with one another. Therefore, says Behrenfeld’s team,

direct competition among phytoplankton probably

happens much less than previously thought.

Based on the texts, how would Behrenfeld and

colleagues (Text 2) most likely respond to the

“conventional wisdom” discussed in Text 1?

A) By arguing that it is based on a misconception

about phytoplankton species competing with

one another

B) By asserting that it fails to recognize that routine

replenishment of ocean nutrients prevents

competition between phytoplankton species

C) By suggesting that their own findings help clarify

how phytoplankton species are able to compete

with larger organisms

D) By recommending that more ecologists focus

their research on how competition among

phytoplankton species is increased with water

density

In 2014, Amelia Quon and her team at NASA set out

build a helicopter capable of flying on Mars.

Because Mars’s atmosphere is only one percent as

dense as Earth’s, the air of Mars would not provide

enough resistance to the rotating blades of a standard

helicopter for the aircraft to stay aloft. For five years,

Quon’s team tested designs in a lab that mimicked

Mars’s atmospheric conditions. The craft the team

ultimately designed can fly on Mars because its

blades are longer and rotate faster than those of a

helicopter of the same size built for Earth.

According to the text, why would a helicopter built

for Earth be unable to fly on Mars?

A) Because Mars and Earth have different

atmospheric conditions

B) Because the blades of helicopters built for Earth

are too large to work on Mars

C) Because the gravity of Mars is much weaker than

the gravity of Earth

D) Because helicopters built for Earth are too small

to handle the conditions on Mars

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

In West Africa, jalis have traditionally been keepers

of information about family histories and records of

important events. They have often served as teachers

and advisers, too. New technologies may have

changed some aspects of the role today, but jalis

continue to be valued for knowing and protecting

their peoples’ stories.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) Even though there have been some changes in

their role, jalis continue to preserve their

communities’ histories.

B) Although jalis have many roles, many of them

like teaching best.

C) Jalis have been entertaining the people within

their communities for centuries.

D) Technology can now do some of the things jalis

used to be responsible for.

In 1934 physicist Eugene Wigner posited the

existence

of a crystal consisting entirely of electrons

in a honeycomb-like structure. The so-called Wigner

crystal remained largely conjecture, however, until

Feng Wang and colleagues announced in 2021 that

they had captured an image of one. The researchers

trapped electrons between two semiconductors and

then cooled the apparatus, causing the electrons to

settle into a crystalline structure. By inserting an

ultrathin sheet of graphene above the crystal, the

researchers obtained an impression—the first visual

confirmation of the Wigner crystal.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) Researchers have obtained the most definitive

evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner

crystal.

B) Researchers have identified an innovative new

method for working with unusual crystalline

structures.

C) Graphene is the most important of the

components required to capture an image of a

Wigner crystal.

D) It’s difficult to acquire an image of a Wigner

crystal because of the crystal’s honeycomb

structure.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Average

Number

oflndividuals

Reporting Directly

CEOs

,f,<-,

󰸔

,o,°''

Years

󰲢

managers

󰲡

department

leaders

Module

Considering a large sample of companies,

economics experts Maria Guadalupe, Julie Wulf, and

Raghuram Rajan assessed the number of managers

and leaders from different departments who reported

directly to a chief executive officer (CEO). According

to the researchers, the findings suggest that across

the years analyzed, there was a growing interest

among CEOs in connecting with more departments

in their companies.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that

support the researchers’ conclusion?

A) The average numbers of managers and

department leaders reporting directly to their

CEO didn’t fluctuate from the 1991–1995 period

to the 2001–2008 period.

B) The average number of managers reporting

directly to their CEO was highest in the

1996–2001 period.

C) The average number of department leaders

reporting directly to their CEO was greater than

the average number of managers reporting

directly to their CEO in each of the three periods

studied.

D) The average number of department leaders

reporting directly to their CEO rose over the

three periods studied.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

When digging for clams, their primary food, sea

otters damage the roots of eelgrass plants growing

on the seafloor. Near Vancouver Island in Canada,

the otter population is large and well established,

yet the eelgrass meadows are healthier than those

found elsewhere off Canada’s coast. To explain

this, conservation scientist Erin Foster and

colleagues compared the Vancouver Island

meadows to meadows where otters are absent or

were reintroduced only recently. Finding that the

Vancouver Island meadows have a more diverse gene

pool than the others do, Foster hypothesized that

damage to eelgrass roots increases the plant’s rate of

sexual reproduction; this, in turn, boosts genetic

diversity, which benefits the meadow’s health overall.

Which finding, if true, would most directly

undermine Foster’s hypothesis?

A) At some sites in the study, eelgrass meadows are

found near otter populations that are small and

have only recently been reintroduced.

B) At several sites not included in the study, there

are large, well-established sea otter populations

but no eelgrass meadows.

C) At several sites not included in the study,

eelgrass meadows’ health correlates negatively

with the length of residence and size of otter

populations.

D) At some sites in the study, the health of plants

unrelated to eelgrass correlates negatively with

the length of residence and size of otter

populations.

Scholars have noted that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s writings

were

likely influenced in part by his marriage to

Zelda Fitzgerald, but many don’t recognize Zelda as a

writer in her own right. Indeed, Zelda authored

several works herself, such as the novel Save Me the

Waltz and numerous short stories. Thus, those who

primarily view Zelda as an inspiration for F. Scott’s

writings ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) overlook the many other factors that motivated

F. Scott to write.

B) risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s

contributions to literature.

C) may draw inaccurate conclusions about how

F. Scott and Zelda viewed each other’s works.

D) tend to read the works of F. Scott and Zelda in an

overly autobiographical light.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

Among social animals that care for their young,

such as chickens, macaque monkeys, and humans,

newborns appear to show an innate attraction to

faces and face-like stimuli. Elisabetta Versace and

her colleagues used an image of three black dots

arranged in the shape of eyes and a nose or mouth

to test whether this trait also occurs in Testudo

tortoises, which live alone and do not engage in

parental care. They found that tortoise hatchlings

showed a significant preference for the image,

suggesting that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) face-like stimuli are likely perceived as harmless

by newborns of social species that practice

parental care but as threatening by newborns of

solitary species without parental care.

B) researchers should not assume that an innate

attraction to face-like stimuli is necessarily an

adaptation related to social interaction or

parental care.

C) researchers can assume that the attraction to

face-like stimuli that is seen in social species that

practice parental care is learned rather than

innate.

D) newly hatched Testudo tortoises show a stronger

preference for face-like stimuli than adult

Testudo tortoises do.

Compiled in the late 1500s largely through the

efforts

of Indigenous scribes, Cantares Mexicanos is

the most important collection of poetry in Classical

Nahuatl, the principal language of the Aztec Empire.

The poems portray Aztec society before the

occupation of the empire by the army of Spain, and

marginal notes in Cantares Mexicanos indicate that

much of the collection’s content predates the initial

invasion. Nonetheless, some of the poems contain

inarguable references to beliefs and customs

common in Spain during this era. Thus, some

scholars have concluded that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) while its content largely predates the invasion,

Cantares Mexicanos also contains additions

made after the invasion.

B) although those who compiled Cantares

Mexicanos were fluent in Nahuatl, they had

limited knowledge of the Spanish language.

C) before the invasion by Spain, the poets of the

Aztec Empire borrowed from the literary

traditions of other societies.

D) the references to beliefs and customs in

Spain should be attributed to a coincidental

resemblance between the societies of Spain

and the Aztec Empire.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

----

In a study of the cognitive abilities of white-faced

capuchin monkeys (Cebus imitator), researchers

neglected to control for the physical difficulty of the

tasks they used to evaluate the monkeys. The

cognitive abilities of monkeys given problems

requiring little dexterity, such as sliding a panel to

retrieve food, were judged by the same criteria as

were those of monkeys given physically demanding

problems, such as unscrewing a bottle and inserting a

straw. The results of the study, therefore, ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) could suggest that there are differences in

cognitive ability among the monkeys even

though such differences may not actually exist.

B) are useful for identifying tasks that the monkeys

lack the cognitive capacity to perform but not for

identifying tasks that the monkeys can perform.

C) should not be taken as indicative of the cognitive

abilities of any monkey species other than

C. imitator.

D) reveal more about the monkeys’ cognitive

abilities when solving artificial problems than

when solving problems encountered in the wild.

To survive when water is scarce,

embryos

inside

African turquoise killifish eggs ______ a

dormant state known as diapause. In this state,

embryonic development is paused for as long as two

years—longer than the life span of an adult killifish.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) enter

B) to enter

C) having entered

D) entering

Formed in 1967 to foster

political and economic

stability

within the Asia-Pacific region, the

Association of Southeast Asian Nations was

originally made up of five members: Thailand, the

Philippines, Singapore, Malaysia, and Indonesia. By

the end of the 1990s, the organization ______ its

initial membership.

Which choice completes

the text

so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has doubled

B) had doubled

C) doubles

D) will double

The intense pressure found in the deep ocean can

affect

the structure of proteins in fish’s cells,

distorting the proteins’ shape. The chemical

trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) counters this

effect, ensuring that proteins retain their original

______ is found in high concentrations in the cells of

the deepest-dwelling fish.

Which choice

completes the text

so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) configurations. TMAO

B) configurations TMAO

C) configurations, TMAO

D) configurations and TMAO

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

Food and the sensation of taste are central to

Monique Truong’s novels. In The Book of Salt, for

example, the exiled character of Bình connects to his

native Saigon through the food he prepares, while in

Bitter in the Mouth, the character of Linda ______ a

form of

synesthesia whereby the words she hears

evoke tastes.

Which choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) experienced

B) had experienced

C) experiences

D) will be experiencing

Inventor John Friedman created

a prototype of the

first

flexible straw by inserting a screw into a paper

straw and, using dental floss, binding the straw

tightly around the ______ When the floss and screw

were removed,

the resulting corrugations in the

paper allowed the straw to bend easily over the edge

of a glass.

Which choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) screw’s thread’s.

B) screws’ threads.

C) screw’s threads.

D) screws threads’.

In her analysis of Edith Wharton’s The

House of

Mirth (1905), scholar Candace Waid observes that

the novel depicts the upper classes of New York

society as “consumed by the appetite of a soulless

______ an apt assessment given that The House

Mirth is set during the Gilded Age, a period marked

by rapid industrialization, economic greed, and

widening wealth disparities.

Which choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) materialism”; and

B) materialism” and

C) materialism,”

D) materialism”

To humans, it does not appear that the golden

orb-weaver

spider uses camouflage to capture its

______ the brightly colored arachnid seems to wait

conspicuously in

the center of its large circular web

for insects to approach. Researcher Po Peng of the

University of Melbourne has explained that the

spider’s distinctive coloration may in fact be part of

its appeal.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) prey, rather,

B) prey rather,

C) prey, rather;

D) prey; rather,

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

In Death Valley National Park’s Racetrack Playa, a

flat, dry lakebed, are 162 rocks—some weighing less

than a pound but others almost 700 pounds—that

move periodically from place to place, seemingly of

their own volition. Racetrack-like trails in the ______

mysterious migration.

Which

choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) playas sediment mark the rock’s

B) playa’s sediment mark the rocks

C) playa’s sediment mark the rocks’

D) playas’ sediment mark the rocks’

In crafting her fantasy fiction, Nigerian-born British

author

Helen Oyeyemi has drawn inspiration from

the classic nineteenth-century fairy tales of the

Brothers Grimm. Her 2014 novel Boy, Snow, Bird,

for instance, is a complex retelling of the story of

Snow White, while her 2019 novel ______ offers a

delicious twist

on the classic tale of Hansel and

Gretel.

Which choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Gingerbread—

B) Gingerbread,

C) Gingerbread

D) Gingerbread:

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following

notes:

• NASA uses rovers, large remote vehicles with

wheels, to explore the surface of Mars.

• NASA’s rovers can’t explore regions inaccessible

to wheeled vehicles.

• Rovers are also heavy, making them difficult to

land on the planet’s surface.

• Microprobes, robotic probes that weigh as little as

50 milligrams, could be deployed virtually

anywhere on the surface of Mars.

• Microprobes have been proposed as an alternative

to rovers.

The student wants to explain an advantage of

microprobes. Which choice most effectively uses

relevant information from the notes to accomplish

this goal?

A) Despite being heavy, NASA’s rovers can land

successfully on the surface of Mars.

B) Microprobes, which weigh as little as

50 milligrams, could explore areas of Mars that

are inaccessible to NASA’s heavy, wheeled

rovers.

C) NASA currently uses its rovers on Mars, but

microprobes have been proposed as an

alternative.

D) Though they are different sizes, both

microprobes and rovers can be used to explore

the surface of Mars.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• Abdulrazak Gurnah was awarded the 2021 Nobel

Prize in Literature.

• Gurnah was born in Zanzibar in East Africa and

currently lives in the United Kingdom.

• Many readers have singled out Gurnah’s 1994

book Paradise for praise.

• Paradise is a historical novel about events that

occurred in colonial East Africa.

The student wants to introduce Paradise to an

audience unfamiliar with the novel and its author.

Which choice most effectively uses relevant

information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) Abdulrazak Gurnah, who wrote Paradise and

later was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature,

was born in Zanzibar in East Africa and

currently lives in the United Kingdom.

B) Many readers have singled out Abdulrazak

Gurnah’s 1994 book Paradise, a historical novel

about colonial East Africa, for praise.

C) A much-praised historical novel about colonial

East Africa, Paradise (1994) was written by

Abdulrazak Gurnah, winner of the 2021 Nobel

Prize in Literature.

D) Paradise is a historical novel about events that

occurred in colonial East Africa, Abdulrazak

Gurnah’s homeland.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following

notes:

• Ulaanbaatar is the capital of Mongolia.

• The city’s population is 907,802.

• Ulaanbaatar contains 31.98 percent of Mongolia’s

population.

• Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam.

• The city’s population is 7,781,631.

• Hanoi contains 8.14 percent of

Vietnam’s population.

Which choice most effectively uses information from

the given sentences to emphasize the relative sizes of

the two capitals’ populations?

A) Mongolia’s capital is Ulaanbaatar, which has

907,802 people, and Vietnam’s capital is Hanoi,

which has 7,781,631 people.

B) The populations of the capitals of Mongolia and

Vietnam are 907,802 (Ulaanbaatar) and

7,781,631 (Hanoi), respectively.

C) Even though Hanoi (population 7,781,631) is

larger than Ulaanbaatar (population 907,802),

Ulaanbaatar accounts for more of its

country’s population.

D) Comparing Vietnam and Mongolia, 7,781,631 is

8.14 percent of Vietnam’s population, and

907,802 is 31.98 percent of Mongolia’s.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• One of history’s greatest libraries was the House of

Wisdom in Baghdad, Iraq.

• It was founded in the eighth century with the goal

of preserving all the world’s knowledge.

• Scholars at the House of Wisdom collected

ancient and contemporary texts from Greece,

India, and elsewhere and translated them into

Arabic.

• Writings included those of the Greek philosopher

Aristotle and the Indian mathematician

Aryabhata.

• The House of Wisdom used Chinese papermaking

technology to create paper versions to be studied

and shared.

The student wants to explain how the House of

Wisdom preserved the world’s knowledge. Which

choice most effectively uses relevant information

from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) The House of Wisdom was known for bringing

together knowledge from around the world,

including from Greece, India, and China.

B) Founded in Iraq in the eighth century, the House

of Wisdom employed many scholars as

translators.

C) Writings from the Greek philosopher Aristotle

and the Indian mathematician Aryabhata were

preserved at the House of Wisdom.

D) The House of Wisdom collected writings from

different countries and created paper versions in

Arabic to be studied and shared.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following

notes:

• British musicians John Lennon and

Paul McCartney shared writing credit for

numerous Beatles songs.

• Many Lennon-McCartney songs were actually

written by either Lennon or McCartney, not by

both.

• The exact authorship of specific parts of many

Beatles songs, such as the verse for “In My Life,” is

disputed.

• Mark Glickman, Jason Brown, and Ryan Song

used statistical methods to analyze the musical

content of Beatles songs.

• They concluded that there is

18.9% probability

that McCartney wrote the verse for “In My Life,”

stating that the verse is “consistent with Lennon’s

songwriting style.”

The student

wants to make a generalization about the

kind of study conducted by Glickman, Brown, and

Song. Which choice most effectively uses relevant

information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) Based on statistical analysis, Glickman, Brown,

and Song claim that John Lennon wrote the

verse of “In My Life.”

There is only an 18.9% probability that

Paul McCartney wrote the verse for “In My Life”;

John Lennon is the more likely author.

C) It

is likely that John Lennon, not

Paul McCartney, wrote the verse for “In My

Life.”

D) Researchers have used statistical methods to

address questions of authorship within the field

of music.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

No Test Material On This Page

Module

Reading and Writing

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

reading and

writing

skills.

Each

question includes one

more passages, which may include a table or graph.

Read

each passage

and question carefully, and then choose

the

best answer

the

question based on

the

passage(s).

All questions in this section are

multiple

-choice

with

four

answer choices.

Each

question

has

single best answer.

---------~ ---------~

The Mule Bone, a 1930 play written by Zora Neale

Hurston and Langston Hughes, is perhaps the

best-known of the few examples of

______ in

literature. Most writers

prefer working alone, and

given that working together cost Hurston and

Hughes their friendship, it is not hard to see why.

Which choice completes the

text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) characterization

B) interpretation

C) collaboration

D) commercialization

......................................................................................................................................................................................................

The process of mechanically recycling plastics

often considered

______ because of the

environmental impact and

the loss of material

quality that often occurs. But chemist Takunda

Chazovachii has helped develop a cleaner process of

chemical recycling that converts superabsorbent

polymers from diapers into a desirable reusable

adhesive.

Which choice completes the

text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) resilient

B) inadequate

C) dynamic

D) satisfactory

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

Interruptions in the supply chain for microchips

used in personal electronics have challenged an

economist’s assertion that retailers can expect robust

growth in sales of those devices in the coming

months. The delays are unlikely to ______ her

projection entirely

but will almost certainly extend

its time frame.

Which choice completes

the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) dispute

B) withdraw

C) underscore

D) invalidate

For her 2021 art installation Anthem,

Wu Tsang

joined forces with singer and composer Beverly

Glenn-Copeland to produce a piece that critics

found truly ______: they praised Tsang for

creatively transforming

a museum rotunda into a

dynamic exhibit by projecting filmed images of

Glenn-Copeland onto a massive 84-foot curtain and

filling the space with the sounds of his and other

voices singing.

Which choice completes

the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) restrained

B) inventive

C) inexplicable

D) mystifying

Some scientists have suggested that mammals in the

Mesozoic

era were not a very ______ group, but

paleontologist Zhe-Xi

Luo’s research suggests that

early mammals living in the shadow of dinosaurs

weren’t all ground-dwelling insectivores. Fossils of

various plant-eating mammals have been found in

China, including species like Vilevolodon diplomylos,

which Luo says could glide like a flying squirrel.

Which choice completes

the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) predatory

B) obscure

C) diverse

D) localized

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

The following text is adapted from Gwendolyn

Bennett’s 1926 poem “Street Lamps in Early Spring.”

Night wears a garment

All velvet soft, all violet blue...

And over her face she draws a veil

As shimmering fine as floating dew...

And here and there

In the black of her hair

The subtle hands of Night

Move slowly with their gem-starred light.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of

the text?

A) It presents alternating descriptions of night in a

rural area and in a city.

B) It sketches an image of nightfall, then an image

of sunrise.

C) It makes an extended comparison of night to a

human being.

D) It portrays how night changes from one season

of the year to the next.

According to historian Vicki L. Ruiz, Mexican

American

women made crucial contributions to the

labor movement during World War II. At the time,

food processing companies entered into contracts to

supply United States armed forces with canned

goods. Increased production quotas conferred

greater bargaining power on the companies’

employees, many of whom were Mexican American

women: employees insisted on more favorable

benefits, and employers, who were anxious to fulfill

the contracts, complied. Thus, labor activism became

a platform for Mexican American women to assert

their agency.

Which choice best describes the function of the

underlined portion in the text as a whole?

A) It elaborates on a claim about labor relations in a

particular industry made earlier in the text.

B) It offers an example of a trend in the World

War II–era economy discussed earlier in the text.

C) It notes a possible exception to the historical

narrative of labor activism sketched earlier in the

text.

D) It provides further details about the identities of

the workers discussed earlier in the text.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

-----~

The following text is adapted from Zora Neale

Hurston’s 1921 short story “John Redding Goes to

Sea.” John is a child who lives in a town in the woods.

Perhaps ten-year-old John was puzzling to the

folk there in the Florida woods for he was an

imaginative child and fond of day-dreams. The

St. John River flowed a scarce three hundred feet

from his back door. On its banks at this point

grow numerous palms, luxuriant magnolias

and bay trees. On the bosom of the stream

float millions of delicately colored hyacinths.

[John Redding] loved to wander down to the

water’s edge, and, casting in dry twigs, watch

them sail away down stream to Jacksonville, the

sea, the wide world and [he] wanted to follow

them.

Which choice best describes the function of the

underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It provides an extended description of a location

that John likes to visit.

B) It reveals that some residents of John’s town are

confused by his behavior.

C) It illustrates the uniqueness of John’s

imagination compared to the imaginations

of other children.

D) It suggests that John longs to experience a larger

life outside the Florida woods.

The following text is adapted from Oscar Wilde’s

1891

novel The Picture of Dorian Gray. Dorian Gray

is taking his first look at a portrait that Hallward has

painted of him.

Dorian passed listlessly in front of his picture

and turned towards it. When he saw it he drew

back, and his cheeks flushed for a moment with

pleasure. A look of joy came into his eyes, as if he

had recognized himself for the first time. He

stood there motionless and in wonder, dimly

conscious that Hallward was speaking to him,

but not catching the meaning of his words. The

sense of his own beauty came on him like a

revelation. He had never felt it before.

According to the text, what is true about Dorian?

A) He wants to know Hallward’s opinion of the

portrait.

B) He is delighted by what he sees in the portrait.

C) He prefers portraits to other types of paintings.

D) He is uncertain of Hallward’s talent as an artist.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

100

Voters' Political Orientation, Level

Political Information, and Probability

Voting

- - -

f--

f-- f--

- - -

f--

f-- f--

2 3 4 5 6

Voters' political orientation

( 1

= strong Democrat/liberal;

= independent;

7 = strong Republican/conservative)

󰲢

low information

󰲡high information

Module

Economists Kerwin Kofi Charles and Melvin

Stephens Jr. investigated a variety of factors that

influence voter turnout in the United States. Using

survey data that revealed whether respondents voted

in national elections and how knowledgeable

respondents are about politics, Charles and Stephens

claim that the likelihood of voting is driven in part by

potential voters’ confidence in their assessments of

candidates—essentially, the more informed voters

are about politics, the more confident they are at

evaluating whether candidates share their views, and

thus the more likely they are to vote.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that

support Charles and Stephens’s claim?

A) At each point on the political orientation scale,

high-information voters were more likely than

low-information voters to vote.

Only low-information voters who identify

as independents had a voting probability

below

50%.

C) The

closer that low-information voters are to the

ends of the political orientation scale, the more

likely they were to vote.

D) High-information voters were more likely to

identify as strong Democrats or strong

Republicans than low-information voters were.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

---

Spider Population

Count

90~-------------

..,

i:::

;::l

t 40

Day

experiment

I D

lizards

󰲡

with

lizards

Module

----------

To investigate the effect of lizard predation on spider

populations, a student in a biology class placed

spiders in two enclosures, one with lizards and one

without, and tracked the number of spiders in the

enclosures for 30 days. The student concluded that

the reduction in the spider population count in the

enclosure with lizards by day 30 was entirely

attributable to the presence of the lizards.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that

weaken the student’s conclusion?

A) The spider population count was the same in

both enclosures on day 1.

B) The spider population count also substantially

declined by day 30 in the enclosure without

lizards.

C) The largest decline in spider population count in

the enclosure with lizards occurred from day 1 to

day 10.

D) The spider population count on day 30 was

lower in the enclosure with lizards than in the

enclosure without lizards.

Archaeologist Petra Vaiglova, anthropologist

Xinyi

Liu, and their colleagues investigated the

domestication of farm animals in China during the

Bronze Age (approximately 2000 to 1000 BCE). By

analyzing the chemical composition of the bones of

sheep, goats, and cattle from this era, the team

determined that wild plants made up the bulk of

sheep’s and goats’ diets, while the cattle’s diet

consisted largely of millet, a crop cultivated by

humans. The team concluded that cattle were likely

raised closer to human settlements, whereas sheep

and goats were allowed to roam farther away.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support

the team’s conclusion?

A) Analysis of the animal bones showed that the

cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, which

humans widely cultivated in China during the

Bronze Age.

B) Further investigation of sheep and goat bones

revealed that their diets consisted of small

portions of millet as well.

C) Cattle’s diets generally require larger amounts of

food and a greater variety of nutrients than do

sheep’s and goats’ diets.

D) The diets of sheep, goats, and cattle were found

to vary based on what the farmers in each

Bronze Age settlement could grow.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

Mosasaurs were large marine reptiles that lived

in the Late Cretaceous period, approximately

100 million to 66 million years ago. Celina Suarez,

Alberto Pérez-Huerta, and T. Lynn Harrell Jr.

examined oxygen-18 isotopes in mosasaur tooth

enamel in order to calculate likely mosasaur body

temperatures and determined that mosasaurs were

endothermic—that is, they used internal metabolic

processes to maintain a stable body temperature

in a variety of ambient temperatures. Suarez,

Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell claim that endothermy

would have enabled mosasaurs to include relatively

cold polar waters in their range.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s claim?

A) Mosasaurs’ likely body temperatures are easier

to determine from tooth enamel oxygen-18

isotope data than the body temperatures of

nonendothermic Late Cretaceous marine

reptiles are.

B) Fossils of both mosasaurs and nonendothermic

marine reptiles have been found in roughly equal

numbers in regions known to be near the poles

during the Late Cretaceous, though in lower

concentrations than elsewhere.

C) Several mosasaur fossils have been found in

regions known to be near the poles during the

Late Cretaceous, while relatively few fossils of

nonendothermic marine reptiles have been

found in those locations.

D) During the Late Cretaceous, seawater

temperatures were likely higher throughout

mosasaurs’ range, including near the poles, than

seawater temperatures at those same latitudes are

today.

Researchers hypothesized that a decline in the

population

of dusky sharks near the mid-Atlantic

coast of North America led to a decline in the

population of eastern oysters in the region. Dusky

sharks do not typically consume eastern oysters but

do consume cownose rays, which are the main

predators of the oysters.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

the researchers’ hypothesis?

A) Declines in the regional abundance of dusky

sharks’ prey other than cownose rays are

associated with regional declines in dusky shark

abundance.

B) Eastern oyster abundance tends to be greater in

areas with both dusky sharks and cownose rays

than in areas with only dusky sharks.

C) Consumption of eastern oysters by cownose rays

in the region substantially increased before the

regional decline in dusky shark abundance

began.

D) Cownose rays have increased in regional

abundance as dusky sharks have decreased in

regional abundance.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

Political scientists who favor the traditional view of

voter behavior claim that voting in an election does

not change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates

in that election. Focusing on each US presidential

election from 1976 to 1996, Ebonya Washington

and Sendhil Mullainathan tested this claim by

distinguishing between subjects who had just become

old enough to vote (around half of whom actually

voted) and otherwise similar subjects who were

slightly too young to vote (and thus none of whom

voted). Washington and Mullainathan compared the

attitudes of the groups of subjects toward the

winning candidate two years after each election.

Which finding from Washington and Mullainathan’s

study, if true, would most directly weaken the claim

made by people who favor the traditional view of

voter behavior?

A) Subjects’ attitudes toward the winning

candidate two years after a given election were

strongly predicted by subjects’ general political

orientation, regardless of whether subjects were

old enough to vote at the time of the election.

B) Subjects who were not old enough to vote in a

given election held significantly more positive

attitudes towards the winning candidate

two years later than they held at the time of the

election.

C) Subjects who voted in a given election held

significantly more polarized attitudes toward

the winning candidate two years later than did

subjects who were not old enough to vote in that

election.

D) Two years after a given election, subjects who

voted and subjects who were not old enough to

vote were significantly more likely to express

negative attitudes than positive attitudes toward

the winning candidate in that election.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

---

Power Conversion Efficiency

Lowest and Highest Performing

Spin-coated and Spray-coated

Electron

Transport

Layers

18~-------------

16--i---------,

o~-~-

Thickness

󰲢

spray coating

󰲡

spin coating

Module

Perovskite solar cells convert light into electricity

more efficiently than earlier kinds of solar cells, and

manufacturing advances have recently made them

commercially attractive. One limitation of the cells,

however, has to do with their electron transport layer

(ETL), through which absorbed electrons must pass.

Often the ETL is applied through a process called

spin coating, but such ETLs are fairly inefficient

at converting input power to output power.

André Taylor and colleagues tested a novel spray

coating method for applying the ETL. The team

produced ETLs of various thicknesses and concluded

that spray coating holds promise for improving the

power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite

solar cells.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that

support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion?

A) Both the ETL applied through spin coating and

the

ETL applied through spray coating showed a

power conversion efficiency greater than

10% at

their lowest performing thickness.

B) The lowest

performing ETL applied through

spray coating had a higher power conversion

efficiency than the highest performing ETL

applied through spin coating.

The highest performing ETL applied through

spray coating showed a power conversion

efficiency of approximately

13%, while the

highest performing ETL applied through spin

coating showed a power conversion efficiency of

approximately

11%.

D) There

was a substantial difference in power

conversion efficiency between the lowest and

highest performing ETLs applied through spray

coating.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

While attending school in New York City in the

1980s, Okwui Enwezor encountered few works by

African artists in exhibitions, despite New York’s

reputation as one of the best places to view

contemporary art from around the world. According

to an arts journalist, later in his career as a renowned

curator and art historian, Enwezor sought to remedy

this deficiency, not by focusing solely on modern

African artists, but by showing how their work fits

into the larger context of global modern art and art

history.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

the journalist’s claim?

A) As curator of the Haus der Kunst in Munich,

Germany, Enwezor organized a retrospective of

Ghanaian sculptor El Anatsui’s work entitled El

Anatsui: Triumphant Scale, one of the largest art

exhibitions devoted to a Black artist in Europe’s

history.

B) In the exhibition Postwar: Art Between the Pacific

and the Atlantic, 1945–1965, Enwezor and

cocurator Katy Siegel brought works by African

artists such as Malangatana Ngwenya together

with pieces by major figures from other

countries, like US artist Andy Warhol and

Mexico’s David Siqueiros.

C) Enwezor’s work as curator of the 2001 exhibition

The Short Century: Independence and Liberation

Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 showed how

African movements for independence from

European colonial powers following the Second

World War profoundly influenced work by

African artists of the period, such as Kamala

Ibrahim Ishaq and Thomas Mukarobgwa.

D) Enwezor organized the exhibition In/sight:

African Photographers, 1940 to the Present not to

emphasize a particular aesthetic trend but to

demonstrate the broad range of ways in which

African artists have approached the medium of

photography.

For thousands of

years, people in the Americas

______

the bottle gourd, a large bitter fruit with a

thick rind, to make bottles, other types of containers,

and even musical instruments. Oddly, there is no

evidence that any type of bottle gourd is native to the

Western Hemisphere; either the fruit or its seeds

must have somehow been carried from Asia or

Africa.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) to use

B) have used

C) having used

D) using

While many video game creators strive to make their

graphics

ever more ______ others look to the past,

developing titles

with visuals inspired by the “8-bit”

games of the 1980s and 1990s. (The term “8-bit”

refers to a console whose processor could only

handle eight bits of data at once.)

Which choice completes

the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) lifelike but

B) lifelike

C) lifelike,

D) lifelike, but

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

In the 1950s, a man named Joseph McVicker was

struggling to keep his business afloat when his sister-

in-law Kay Zufall advised him to repurpose the

company’s product, a nontoxic, clay-like substance

for removing soot from wallpaper, as a modeling

putty for kids. In addition, Zufall ______ selling the

product under a child-friendly name:

Play-Doh.

Which choice completes the text so

that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) suggested

B) suggests

C) had suggested

D) was suggesting

Beatrix Potter is perhaps best known for writing

and

illustrating children’s books such as The Tale of

Peter Rabbit (1902), but she also dedicated herself

to mycology, the study of ______ more than

350 paintings of the fungal

species she observed in

nature and submitting her research on spore

germination to the Linnean Society of London.

Which choice completes the text so

that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) fungi; producing

B) fungi. Producing

C) fungi producing

D) fungi, producing

In assessing the films of Japanese director

Akira

Kurosawa, ______ have missed his equally

deep engagement with Japanese artistic traditions

such as Noh theater.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) many critics have focused on Kurosawa’s use of

Western literary sources but

B) Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources has

been the focus of many critics, who

C) there are many critics who have focused on

Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources, but

they

D) the focus of many critics has been on Kurosawa’s

use of Western literary sources; they

Joshua Hinson, director of the language revitalization

program

of the Chickasaw Nation in Oklahoma,

helped produce the world’s first Indigenous-language

instructional app, Chickasaw ______ Chickasaw TV,

in 2010; and a Rosetta

Stone language course in

Chickasaw, in 2015.

Which choice completes the text so

that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Basic; in 2009, an online television network;

B) Basic; in 2009, an online television network,

C) Basic, in 2009; an online television network,

D) Basic, in 2009, an online television network,

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

The forty-seven geothermal springs of Arkansas’ Hot

Springs National Park are sourced via a process

known as natural groundwater recharge, in which

rainwater percolates downward through the

earth—in this case, the porous rocks of the hills

around Hot ______ collect in a subterranean basin.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Springs to

B) Springs: to

C) Springs—to

D) Springs, to

Over twenty years ago, in a landmark experiment in

the

psychology of choice, professor Sheena Iyengar

set up a jam-tasting booth at a grocery store. The

number of jams available for tasting ______ some

shoppers had twenty-four different options,

others

only six. Interestingly, the shoppers with fewer jams

to choose from purchased more jam.

Which choice completes the text so

that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) varied:

B) varied,

C) varied, while

D) varied while

Nigerian author Buchi Emecheta’s celebrated literary

oeuvre

includes The Joys of Motherhood, a novel

about the changing roles of women in 1950s ______

a television play about the

private struggles of a

newlywed couple in Nigeria; and Head Above Water,

her autobiography.

Which choice completes the text so

that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Lagos, A Kind of Marriage,

B) Lagos; A Kind of Marriage,

C) Lagos, A Kind of Marriage:

D) Lagos; A Kind of Marriage

Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie’s 2013 novel

Americanah chronicles

the divergent experiences of

Ifemelu and Obinze, a young Nigerian couple, after

high school. Ifemelu moves to the United States to

attend a prestigious university. ______ Obinze

travels to London, hoping to

start a career there.

However, frustrated with the lack of opportunities,

he soon returns to Nigeria.

Which choice completes the text with

the most

logical transition?

A) Meanwhile,

B) Nevertheless,

C) Secondly,

D) In fact,

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

Organisms have evolved a number of surprising

adaptations to ensure their survival in adverse

conditions. Tadpole shrimp (Triops longicaudatus)

embryos, ______ can pause development for over

ten years during extended periods of

drought.

Which choice completes the text with the

most

logical transition?

A) in contrast,

B) for example,

C) meanwhile,

D) consequently,

In 1933, the Twentieth Amendment to the US

Constitution

was ratified. The amendment

mandates that presidential inaugurations be held

on January 20, approximately ten weeks after the

November election. ______ this amendment requires

newly elected US senators and representatives

to be

sworn into their respective offices on January 3.

Which choice completes the text with the

most

logical transition?

A) Instead,

B) For instance,

C) Specifically,

D) In addition,

In her poetry collection Thomas

and Beulah, Rita

Dove

interweaves the titular characters’ personal

stories with broader historical narratives. She places

Thomas’s journey from the American South to the

Midwest in the early 1900s within the larger context

of the Great Migration. ______ Dove sets events

from Beulah’s personal life against the

backdrop of

the US Civil Rights Movement.

Which choice completes the text with the

most

logical transition?

A) Specifically,

B) Thus,

C) Regardless,

D) Similarly,

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following

notes:

• The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike was a

road built between 1792 and 1794.

• It was the first private turnpike in the

United States.

• It connected the cities of Philadelphia and

Lancaster in the state of Pennsylvania.

• It was sixty-two miles long.

The student wants to emphasize the distance covered

by the Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike. Which

choice most effectively uses relevant information

from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) The sixty-two-mile-long Philadelphia and

Lancaster Turnpike connected the Pennsylvania

cities of Philadelphia and Lancaster.

B) The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike was

the first private turnpike in the United States.

C) The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike, which

connected two Pennsylvania cities, was built

between 1792 and 1794.

D) A historic Pennsylvania road, the Philadelphia

and Lancaster Turnpike was completed in 1794.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• Most, but not all, of the Moon’s oxygen comes

from the Sun, via solar wind.

• Cosmochemist Kentaro Terada from

Osaka University wondered if some of the

unaccounted-for oxygen could be coming

from Earth.

• In 2008, he analyzed data from the Japanese

satellite Kaguya.

• Kaguya gathered data about gases and particles it

encountered while orbiting the Moon.

• Based on the Kaguya data, Terada confirmed his

suspicion that Earth is sending oxygen to the

Moon.

The student wants to emphasize the aim of the

research study. Which choice most effectively uses

relevant information from the notes to accomplish

this goal?

A) As it orbited the Moon, the Kaguya satellite

collected data that was later analyzed by

cosmochemist Kentaro Terada.

B) Before 2008, Kentaro Terada wondered if the

Moon was receiving some of its oxygen from

Earth.

C) Cosmochemist Kentaro Terada set out to

determine whether some of the Moon’s oxygen

was coming from Earth.

D) Kentaro Terada’s study determined that Earth is

sending a small amount of oxygen to the Moon.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following

notes:

•

Ducklings expend up to 62.8% less energy when

swimming in a line behind their mother than

when swimming alone.

• The physics behind this energy savings hasn’t

always been well understood.

• Naval architect Zhiming Yuan used computer

simulations to study the effect of the mother

duck’s wake.

• The study revealed that ducklings are pushed in a

forward direction by the wake’s waves.

•

Yuan determined this push reduces the effect of

wave drag on the ducklings by

158%.

The

student wants to present the study and its

methodology. Which choice most effectively uses

relevant information from the notes to accomplish

this goal?

A study revealed that ducklings, which expend

up to

62.8% less energy when swimming in a line

behind their mother, also experience

158% less

drag.

B) Seeking

to understand how ducklings swimming

in a line behind their mother save energy,

Zhiming Yuan used computer simulations to

study the effect of the mother duck’s wake.

C) Zhiming Yuan studied the physics behind the

fact that by being pushed in a forward direction

by waves, ducklings save energy.

D) Naval architect Zhiming Yuan discovered that

ducklings are pushed in a forward direction by

the waves of their mother’s wake, reducing the

effect of drag by

158%.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Module

Math

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

math skills.

Use

a calculator

permitted for all questions.

,a-nH

NOTES

Unless otherwise indicated:

• All variables and expressions represent

real numbers.

• Figures provided are drawn

scale.

• All figures lie in a plane.

• The domain

a given function

the

set

all real numbers x

for

which f(x)

a real number.

REFERENCE

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

li04ii1Ut31



CJw

x--../3

45°

=nr

C=2nr

A =_!bh

Special Right Triangles

i,.r3

V=½nr

V =

62h

The

number

degrees

arc in a circle

360.

The

number

radians

arc in a circle

2n.

The sum

the

measures in degrees

the

angles

a triangle

180.

Module

For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem, choose the correct

answer from

the

choices provided, and then circle your answer in this book.

Circle only one answer for each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions

with

more than one

answer circled, or

for

questions

with

no answers circled.

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer

under

the

question in

the

test

book

described below.

• Once you've written your answer, circle

clearly.

You

will

not

receive credit

for

anything

written

outside

the

circle, or

for

any questions

with

more than

one circled answer.

•

you find more than one correct answer, write and circle only one answer.

• Your answer

can

5 characters

for

a positive answer and up

6 characters (including the negative sign) for a negative answer,

but

no more.

•

your answer

a fraction

that

too

long (over 5 characters

for

positive,

6 characters

for

negative), write

the

decimal equivalent.

•

your answer

a decimal

that

too

long (over 5 characters for positive,

6 characters

for

negative), truncate

or round at the

fourth

digit.

•

your answer

a mixed number (such

.!.

write

improper

fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent

•

Don't

include symbols such

a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in

your circled answer.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

---------~

'"'



.....

15%



r:::

I:!

11..

Model year

---------~

m n

The line graph shows the percent of cars for sale at a

used car lot on a given day by model year.

For what model year is the percent of cars for sale the

smallest?

A) 2012

B) 2013

C) 2014

D) 2015

For a particular machine that produces beads,

29 out

every

100 beads it produces have a defect. A bead

produced by the machine will be selected at random.

What is the probability of selecting a bead that has a

defect?

2,900

100

Note: Figure

not

drawn to scale.

In the figure, line m is parallel to line n, and line t

intersects both lines. What is the value of x ?

A) 33

B) 57

C) 123

D) 147

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

-----

114



.....

- - - -

-10

8 6 4 2

246810

Module

----------

What is the y-intercept of the graph shown?

(−8, 0)

(−6, 0)

(0, 6)

(0, 8)

The total cost

fx()

, in dollars, to lease a car for

36 months from a particular car dealership is given

fx()= 36x + 1,000

, where x

is the monthly

payment, in dollars. What is the total cost to lease a

car when the monthly payment is $400?

A) $13,400

B) $13,000

C) $15,400

D) $37,400

Each side of a square has a length of 45. What

is the

perimeter

of this square?

What is the positive solution to the given equation?

An object travels at a constant speed of

centimeters per second. At this speed, what is the

time, in seconds, that it would take for the object to

travel 108 centimeters?

A) 9

B) 96

C) 120

D) 972

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

------~

Data set X: 5, 9, 9, 13

Data set Y: 5, 9, 9, 13, 27

The lists give the values in data sets X and Y. Which

statement correctly compares the mean of data set X

and the mean of data set Y?

A) The mean of data set X is greater than the mean

of data set Y.

B) The mean of data set X is less than the mean of

data set Y.

C) The means of data set X and data set Y are equal.

D) There is not enough information to compare the

means.

A rocket contained 467,000 kilograms (kg) of

propellant

before launch. Exactly 21 seconds after

launch, 362,105 kg of this propellant remained. On

average, approximately how much propellant, in kg,

did the rocket burn each second after launch?

A) 4,995

B) 17,243

C) 39,481

D) 104,895

4+x 2 =12

, what is the value of

16x + 8

A) 40

B) 48

C) 56

D) 60

An object is kicked from a platform. The equation

represents this situation, where

h is the height of the object above the ground, in

meters, t

seconds after it is kicked.

Which number

represents the height, in meters, from which the

object was kicked?

A) 0

B) 4.9

C) 7

D) 9

=−4.9t

+7t +9

fx()= 4x

− 50x + 126

The given equation defines the function f. For what

value of x

does

fx()

reach its minimum?

A small business owner budgets $2,200 to purchase

candles.

The owner must purchase a minimum of

200 candles to maintain the discounted pricing. If the

owner pays $4.90 per candle to purchase small

candles and $11.60 per candle to purchase large

candles, what is the maximum number of large

candles the owner can purchase to stay within the

budget and maintain the discounted pricing?

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

----------

----

----------

In the linear function f,

f ()0=8

and

f ()1= 12

Which equation defines f ?

fx()=12x +8

fx()=4x

fx()=4x + 12

fx()=4x +8

The function

fw()=6w

gives the area of a

rectangle, in square feet

(ft

)

, if its width is w ft and

its length is 6 times its width. Which of the following

is the best interpretation of

f () 14 = 1,176

A) If the width of the rectangle

is 14 ft, then the area

of the rectangle is 1,176

B) If the width of the rectangle is 14 ft, then the

length of the rectangle is 1,176 ft.

C) If the width of the rectangle is 1,176 ft, then the

length of the rectangle is 14 ft.

D) If the width of the rectangle is 1,176 ft, then the

area of the rectangle is 14

Note: Figure

not

drawn to scale.

The circle shown has center O, circumference

144π

and diameters

and

. The length of arc

twice the length of arc

. What is the length of

arc

24π

48π

72π

96π

A company that provides whale-watching tours takes

groups of 21 people at a time. The company’s

revenue is 80 dollars per adult and 60 dollars per

child. If the company’s revenue for one group

consisting of adults and children was 1,440 dollars,

how many people in the group were children?

A) 3

B) 9

C) 12

D) 18

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

------~

The function h is defined by

hx()=4x + 28

. The

graph of xy

y = h(x)

in the -plane has an x-intercept

(,a 0)

and

a y-intercept at

(0, b)

, where a

and b

are constants. What is the value of

+ b

A) 21

B) 28

C) 32

D) 35

One of the factors of

+ 42x

+ 208x

+ b

where b is a positive constant. What is the smallest

possible value of b ?

y =−1.5

y = x

+8x + a

In the given system of equations, a is a positive

constant. The system has exactly one distinct real

solution. What is the value of a ?

f(x)= (x +6)(x +5)(x −4)

The function f

is given. Which table of values

represents

y = f()x−3

x y

−6 −9

−5

−8

4 1

−6 −3

−5

−3

x y

−6 −3

−5

−2

x y

−6 3

−5

For the function q, the value of

qx()

decreases by

45% for every increase in the value of x

by 1. If

q()0=14

, which equation defines q ?

qx()=0.55 (14 )

qx()=1.45(14 )

qx()=14(0.55)

qx()=14(1.45)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

-----

----------

....

,__

-8

-6

-4

-2-Ll

->-2-

-6-

>-8-

I 6

'10

The graph of

y = f ()x + 14

is shown. Which

equation defines function f ?

fx()=− x −12

fx() =− x +16

fx() =− x +2

fx() =− x −14

RS =20

ST =48

TR =52

The side lengths of right triangle

RST

are given.

Triangle

RST

is similar to triangle

UVW

, where S

corresponds to V and T corresponds to W. What is

the value of

tan W

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

-----~

One gallon of paint will cover 220 square feet of a

surface. A room has a total wall area of w square feet.

Which equation represents the total amount of

paint P, in gallons, needed to paint the walls of the

room twice?

P =

110

P = 440w

P =

220

P = 220w

The number a is 110% greater than the number b.

The number b is 90% less than 47. What is the

value of a ?

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

No Test Material On This Page

Module

Math

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

math skills.

Use

a calculator

permitted for all questions.

NOTES

,a-nH

Unless otherwise indicated:

• All variables and expressions represent

real numbers.

• Figures provided are drawn

scale.

• All figures lie in a plane.

• The domain

a given function

the

set

all real numbers x

for

which f(x)

a real number.

REFERENCE

li04ii1Ut31



CJw

x--../3

45°

=nr

C=2nr

A =_!bh

Special Right Triangles

i,.r3

V=½nr

V =

62h

The

number

degrees

arc in a circle

360.

The

number

radians

arc in a circle

2n.

The sum

the

measures in degrees

the

angles

a triangle

180.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem, choose the correct

answer from

the

choices provided, and then circle your answer in this book.

Circle only one answer for each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions

with

more than one

answer circled, or

for

questions

with

no answers circled.

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer

under

the

question in

the

test

book

described below.

• Once you've written your answer, circle

clearly.

You

will

not

receive credit

for

anything

written

outside

the

circle, or

for

any questions

with

more than

one circled answer.

•

you find more than one correct answer, write and circle only one answer.

• Your answer

can

5 characters

for

a positive answer and up

6 characters (including the negative sign) for a negative answer,

but

no more.

•

your answer

a fraction

that

too

long (over 5 characters

for

positive,

6 characters

for

negative), write

the

decimal equivalent.

•

your answer

a decimal

that

too

long (over 5 characters for positive,

6 characters

for

negative), truncate

or round at the

fourth

digit.

•

your answer

a mixed number (such

.!.

write

improper

fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent

•

Don't

include symbols such

a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in

your circled answer.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

There are 55 students in Spanish club. A sample of

the Spanish club students was selected at random

and

asked whether they intend to enroll in a new

study program. Of those surveyed,

20%

responded

that they intend to enroll in the study program.

Based on this survey, which of the following is the

best estimate of the total number of Spanish club

students who intend to enroll in the study program?

A) 11

B) 20

C) 44

D) 55

Jay walks at a speed of 3 miles per hour and runs at a

speed of 5 miles per hour. He walks for w hours and

runs for r hours for a combined total of 14 miles.

Which equation represents this situation?

w =3+5r 14

=14

112

3w + 5r = 112

The scatterplot shows the relationship between

two variables, x and y. A line of best fit is also

shown.

Module

---------~ ---------~

---------~

V -



1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Which of the following equations best represents the

line of best fit shown?

y = 2.8 + 1.7x

y = 2.8 − 1.7x

y = −2.8 + 1.7x

y = −2.8 − 1.7x

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

-----

----------

L;'

-z'

8-.=6-.=4-.=2

_ 4 _

f--8-

-~--------

----------

The graph of

y f x= ( )

is shown in the xy-plane.

What is the value of

f 0( )

−3

Which expression is equivalent to

(m q z )(mq z )

4 4 −1 5 3

where m, q, and z are positive?

m q z

4 20 −3

m q z

5 9

m q z

6 8 −1

m q z

20 12 −2

73, 74, 75, 77, 79, 82, 84, 85, 91

What is the median of the data shown?

x + 40 = 95

What value of x is the solution to the given

equation?

5x = 15

−4x + y = −2

The solution to the given system of equations is

x y( , )

. What is the value of

x y+

−17

−13

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

-----~

gm) = −0.05m( + 12.1

The given function g models the number of gallons

of gasoline that remains from a full gas tank in a car

after driving m miles. According to the model, about

how many gallons of gasoline are used to drive

each mile?

A) 0.05

B) 12.1

C) 20

D) 242.0

1 11x

7b y

The given equation relates the positive numbers b, x,

and y. Which equation correctly expresses x in terms

of b and y ?

x =

7by

x =−77by

77b

x =77by

y =76

y = x

−5

The graphs of the given equations in the xy-plane

intersect at the point

(,xy)

. What is a possible value

of x ?

−

−9

y >14

4+ xy < 18

The point

(x, 53)

is a solution to the system of

inequalities in the xy-plane. Which of the following

could be the value

of x ?

−9

−5

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

------~

Out of 300 seeds that were planted,

80%

sprouted.

How many of these seeds sprouted?

The function f

is defined by

fx()=4x

. For what

value of x

does

fx()=8

Which expression is equivalent to

8xx( −7)−3(x −7)

2−14 x

, where

x >7

x −7

x8−3

8−3x x − 14

x2−14

8−3x x − 77

x2−14

Line p

is defined by

2+y 18x =9

. Line r

perpendicular to line p in the xy-plane. What is the

slope of line r

−9

−

ft( ) = 8,000(0.65)

The given function f

models the number of coupons

a company sent to their customers at the end of each

year, where t

represents the number of years since

the end of

1998, and

0≤ t ≤5

.If

y =(ft )

is graphed

in the

ty-plane, which of the following is the best

interpretation of the y-intercept of the graph in this

context?

A) The minimum estimated number

of coupons the

company sent to their customers during the

5 years was 1,428.

B) The minimum estimated number of coupons the

company sent to their customers during the

5 years was 8,000.

C) The estimated number of coupons the company

sent to their customers at the end of 1998

was 1,428.

D) The estimated number of coupons the company

sent to their customers at the end of 1998

was 8,000.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

------~

Triangle

XYZ

is similar to triangle

RST

such that X,

Y, and Z

correspond to R, S, and T, respectively.

The measure of

∠Z

20°

and

2XY = RS

. What is

the measure of

∠T

2°

10°

20°

40°

y =6x + 18

One of the equations in a system of two linear

equations is given. The system has no solution.

Which equation could be the second equation in the

system?

−6xy+ = 18

−6xy+ = 22

−12xy+ = 36

−12xy+ = 18

What is the area, in square centimeters, of a rectangle

with a length of 34 centimeters (cm) and a width of

29 cm?

y =4x +1

4=y 15x −8

The solution to the given system of equations is

(,xy)

. What is the value of

x− y

5x + 10x +16 =0

How many distinct real solutions does the given

equation have?

A) Exactly one

B) Exactly two

C) Infinitely many

D) Zero

A certain park has an area of

11,863,808

square

yards. What is the area, in square miles, of this park?

(

1 mile = 1,760 yards

)

A) 1.96

B) 3.83

C) 3,444.39

D) 6,740.8

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Module

----------



i 6



µ..

Data Set A

10 20 30 40 50 60

Integer

Data Set B

12~-----

l0-+------



8+------1

6+---l



4-+--~--t

µ..

0-+---+---+---+---+----+-

10 20 30 40 50

Integer

----------

Which of the following equations represents a circle

in the xy-plane that intersects the y-axis at exactly

one point?

(x − 8)

+ (y − 8)

= 16

(x − 8)

+ (y − 4)

= 16

(x − 4)

+ (y − 9)

= 16

+(y − 9)

= 16

In triangles

ABC

and

DEF

, angles B and E each

have measure

27°

and angles C and F each have

measure

41°

. Which additional piece of information

is sufficient to determine whether triangle

ABC

congruent to triangle

DEF

A) The measure of angle A

B) The length of side

C) The lengths of sides

and

D) No additional information is necessary.

Two data sets of 23 integers each are summarized in

the histograms shown. For each of the histograms,

the first interval represents the frequency of integers

greater than or equal to 10, but less than 20. The

second interval represents the frequency of integers

greater than or equal to 20, but less than 30, and so

on. What is the smallest possible difference between

the mean of data set A and the mean of data set B?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 10

D) 23

A right triangle has legs with lengths of

centimeters and 21 centimeters. If the

length of

this triangle’s hypotenuse, in centimeters, can be

written in the form

3 d

, where d is an integer, what

is the value of d ?

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

No Test Material On This Page

The

SAT.

The

SAT

GENERAL

DIRECTIONS

•

You

may work on only one module

a time.

• If you finish a module before time is called,

check

your

work

that

module only.

You

may

NOT

turn

any

other

module.

MARKING

YOUR ANSWERS

•

sure

answer your questions properly in this

book

• Circle only one answer

each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions with more than one answer

circled,

for

questions with no answers circled.

USING

YOUR

TEST

BOOK

•

You

may use

the

test

book

for

scratch work.

•

You

may

not

fold

remove pages

portions

a page from this book,

take the

book

from

the

testing room.

IIIII

111111111111111

WF2P0007

The SAT

Practice

Test

ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the

digital SAT in nondigital format.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

2 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Reading and Writing

Module 1

(33 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Juarez. In this context, “important” means marked by significant

work or consequence. The text indicates that Juarez, who was the first president

of Mexico from an Indigenous community, became a certain kind of figure in

Mexico’s history. It then supports that claim by describing some of the “many

significant accomplishments” from Juarez’s long tenure in office. This context

conveys that Juarez is a significant and consequential figure in Mexico’s history.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on Juarez’s role as the first

president of Mexico from an Indigenous community and on his many major

accomplishments during his lengthy time in office; nothing in the text suggests

that Juarez was “unpredictable,” or tended to behave in ways that couldn’t be

predicted. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Juarez

was a particularly “secretive” figure, or that he tended to keep things private or

hidden from others. Instead, the text focuses on things that are known about

Juarez: that he was the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community,

that he had a lengthy tenure, and that his many major accomplishments included

consolidating the national government’s authority and advancing Indigenous

rights. Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses on the idea that Juarez,

who was the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community, had many

major accomplishments during his lengthy time in office. Rather than suggesting

that Juarez was an “ordinary,” or common and typical, figure in Mexico’s history,

this context conveys that Juarez was instead a notable figure.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

3 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 2

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of John Ashbery’s poems. As used in this context, “interpret” would

mean decipher the meaning of. The text indicates that Ashbery’s poems have

many unusual features, that it’s difficult to tell what exactly the poems’ subject

matter is, and that scholars strongly disagree about the poems. This context

conveys the idea that it’s difficult to interpret Ashbery’s poems.

Choice A is incorrect because “delegate” means to assign someone as a

representative of another person or to entrust something to someone else,

neither of which would make sense in context. The text is focused only on the

difficulty that readers have interpreting Ashbery’s poems due to their many

unusual features; it doesn’t suggest anything about the poems being difficult to

delegate. Choice B is incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as difficult

to “compose,” or put together or produce, would make sense only if the text were

about Ashbery’s experience of writing the poems. It could be true that it was

difficult for Ashbery to compose his poems, but the text doesn’t address this; it

instead discusses how readers interpret and engage with the poems. Choice D is

incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as being difficult to “renounce,”

or give up or refuse, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the idea

that features of Ashbery’s poems are odd or unclear and have caused heated

scholarly debate. This context suggests that the poems are difficult to interpret,

not that the poems are difficult to renounce.

QUESTION 3

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes

the text’s discussion of the fossil record from the Cambrian period. In this context,

“abrupt” means sudden. The text explains that the fossil record reflects the

unexpected appearance and rapid diversification, or increase in variety, of animal

remains during the Cambrian period. This context establishes that these remains’

entry into the fossil record was sudden.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the word “explosion” appears in the name of

the event marked by the fossil record change, the text never suggests that the

change was “catastrophic,” or disastrous. In context, “explosion” refers to the

rapid diversification, or the swift increase in variety, of animal remains in the fossil

record—a phenomenon that the text presents in a relatively neutral manner,

without commenting on whether it was negative or positive. Choice B is incorrect

because the text never suggests that the change toward greater diversification is

“elusive,” or difficult to locate, in the fossil record. Rather, the text notes that the

change occurred about 541 million years ago, suggesting that scientists have

indeed been able to locate it. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make

sense in context to describe the change in the fossil record as “imminent,” or

about to occur, since the text indicates that the change already occurred millions

of years ago.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

4 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 4

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the significance of the 2014 archaeological finding at El Algar. In

this context, “concede” means to admit something is true after first resisting

that admission. The text indicates that some researchers believe “Bronze Age

societies were ruled by men.” But the Bronze Age burial of a woman at El Algar

included “valuable objects signaling a high position of power,” which would raise

the possibility that “women may have also held leadership roles.” Thus, the text is

calling into question the notion that only men were leaders in these societies and

speculating that people holding this view may reconsider their opinion.

Choice A is incorrect because “waive” means to refrain from insisting that

something, such as a right or a requirement, be observed; the word isn’t used,

however, in contexts where someone acknowledges that an opinion they hold

may be invalid, as is the case in the text. Choice C is incorrect. According to the

text, the finding from the El Algar burial site undermines the view that Bronze Age

societies were exclusively ruled by men. However, “refute” means to demonstrate

that something is false and would not make sense in context. Lull and team’s

finding supports the view that women may have also held leadership roles, not

that they did not participate in such roles. Choice D is incorrect because in this

context, “require” means to demand or specify as mandatory. However, it would

not make sense for contemporary researchers to demand that Bronze Age

“women may have also held leadership roles.”

QUESTION 5

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of baleen whale accessory spleens. In this context, “latent” means

dormant or functionless. The text sets up a contrast between the idea that

baleen whale accessory spleens appear not to have a function and the research

indicating that the accessory spleen may actually have a role in supporting the

whales’ diving mechanisms. This context therefore conveys the idea that the

assumption that baleen whale accessory spleens are latent may be incorrect.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the role of

the accessory spleen is “replicable,” or capable of being reproduced. The text

indicates that the role of the accessory spleen seems to have no function, but

some researchers think it does have a role; the text doesn’t address whether

the role of the accessory spleen could or couldn’t be reproduced. ChoiceB

is incorrect because suggesting that the role of the accessory spleen is

“predetermined,” or decided in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context.

Although the researchers may agree that the role of the accessory spleen or

any other organ hasn’t been determined in advance, the text focuses on the idea

that the accessory spleen was thought to have been functionless but may in

fact serve an active role for baleen whales. Choice C is incorrect because it’s the

opposite of what the context of the text is conveying. The second sentence of the

text indicates that baleen whale accessory spleens may not be useless, not that

they aren’t “operative,” or functional.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

5 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 6

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the factors that influence peoples’ decisions to move to a different

state. As used in this context, “overshadowed by” means to be surpassed by

or caused to seem less important than other factors affecting a move. The text

indicates that, according to a US tax policy expert, when people think about an

interstate move, state taxes have little effect on their decisions, while employment

opportunities, housing availability, and climate have a very strong effect. This

context suggests that people consider these other factors to be more important

than state taxes.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that state taxes aren’t as

important a consideration as other factors when people are thinking of moving to

another state. The context doesn’t suggest that state taxes are “consistent with,”

or in agreement with these other factors. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t

make sense in context to say that state taxes are “representative of,” or typical

of, other factors. Taxes aren’t an example of employment opportunities, housing

availability, and climate, which are the other factors listed in the text. Choice D is

incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that state taxes are

“irrelevant to,” or unconnected or unimportant to other factors. State taxes are

irrelevant to peoples’ decisions, not to other factors. In other words, although the

text suggests that state taxes may be irrelevant to people considering a move

to another state, the other factors mentioned in the text, such as employment

opportunities, are unable to have an opinion about state taxes. Furthermore, the

text indicates that significant differences in state taxes have almost no effect on

peoples’ choices to move, but they aren’t completely unimportant.

QUESTION 7

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the author’s claim about the relationship between Neanderthals

and Homo sapiens. As used in this context, “tenuous” means lacking substance

or strength. The text states that the author’s claim isn’t convincing because it

doesn’t consider certain pieces of evidence—relevant recent discoveries. The

context conveys the idea that the author’s claim is weak.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the author’s claim

is “disorienting,” or confusing; rather than indicating that the claim is hard

to grasp, the text focuses on the idea that it has a weakness that makes it

unconvincing. Choice C is incorrect because describing the claim as “nuanced,”

or subtle, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text emphasizes that the claim

is unconvincing because it didn’t consider certain key archaeological finds; it

doesn’t suggest that what’s in the claim seems subtle. Choice D is incorrect

because the text faults the claim for not considering certain key archaeological

finds; it doesn’t suggest that the author’s claim is “unoriginal,” or imitative and

lacking originality.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

6 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 8

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately states the text’s main

purpose. The poem begins with the speaker urging a child to “go forth” with

her encouragement (“my heart’s desire”). The speaker goes on to suggest that

new experiences (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) lie ahead for the son that “life

is calling” him to seek out. Thus, the main purpose is to encourage a child to

embrace the experiences available to him in his life.

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker encourages the child to pursue new

experiences (“Great reaches”) without knowing exactly what those experiences

will be (“yet unknown”) or suggesting that they should match the speaker’s own

accomplishments. Choice B is incorrect because the speaker focuses on positive

possibilities for her son (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) and her enthusiastic

encouragement to embrace those possibilities (“life is calling you!”), while there

is no mention of raising a child or associated struggles. Choice C is incorrect

because the speaker frames the possibilities for her son in a positive light when

she says that “great reaches, yet unknown” are waiting for him, and this positive

outlook for the son is consistent throughout the text.

QUESTION 9

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes the function of the

underlined sentence in the text’s overall portrayal of how the women in Ohiyesa’s

tribe harvested maple syrup. The text states that the women used an axe to

strike the maple trees in order to find out which ones would produce sap. The

underlined sentence compares the trees to people, with the sap described as the

trees’ “life-blood.” Some of the trees are ready to give out their sap, while others

are unwilling to do so. Using personification, the sentence provides greater detail

about the aspect of the maple trees—their potential to give sap—that the women

are evaluating.

Choice A is incorrect because the personalities of the women are not discussed in

the text. Although the underlined sentence does mention “individual characters,”

this reference is not to the women in the text but rather to the maple trees, which

the sentence compares to people with individual character traits. Choice B is

incorrect because the underlined sentence focuses on the trees’ willingness or

refusal to yield sap, not on the beneficial relationship between the women and the

trees. Additionally, although the text does suggest that the women and their tribe

benefit from the maple trees since the trees allow the women to harvest syrup,

there is nothing in the text to suggest that the trees benefit from this relationship

in turn. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence is comparing

maple trees to humans, not addressing the influence of the natural environment

on how the actual humans in the text, the women, behave.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

7 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 10

Choice A is the best answer because based on Text 2, it represents how

Behrenfeld and colleagues would most likely respond to the “conventional

wisdom” discussed in Text 1. The conventional wisdom cited holds the opinion

that when there is species diversity within a phytoplankton population, “one

species should emerge after outcompeting the rest”—that is, after being so

successful in competing for resources that the other species vanish from the

population. However, Text 2 explains that according to Behrenfeld and colleagues,

phytoplankton are so small and spaced so far apart in the water that there is

“much less” direct competition for resources within phytoplankton populations

than scientists had previously thought.

Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 never discusses whether routine

replenishment of ocean nutrients affects competition between phytoplankton

species. Choice C is incorrect because the interspecies competition discussed

in both texts is specifically between phytoplankton species, and neither

text considers whether phytoplankton compete for resources with larger

nonphytoplankton species. Choice D is incorrect because according to Text 2,

Behrenfeld and colleagues argue that water density decreases, not increases,

competition between phytoplankton species.

QUESTION 11

Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation about a

helicopter that is directly supported by the text. The text states that Mars’s

atmosphere is much less dense than Earth’s, and as a result, the air on Mars

doesn’t provide the resistance required to support the blades of a helicopter

built for Earth and to keep the helicopter aloft. In other words, a helicopter

built for Earth can’t fly on Mars because of the differences in the two planets’

atmospheres.

Choice B is incorrect because instead of stating that the blades of helicopters

built for Earth are too large to work on Mars, the text indicates that the helicopter

built to fly on Mars actually has even longer blades than a helicopter built for

Earth. Choice C is incorrect because the text never addresses the role of gravity

on Mars or on Earth; instead, it focuses on atmospheric conditions. Choice D is

incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that helicopters built for Earth are too

small to operate in the conditions on Mars. In fact, the text states that the size of

the helicopter built to fly on Mars is the same size as a helicopter built for Earth,

even though it has longer blades that rotate faster.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

8 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 12

Choice A is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text.

According to the text, jalis’ traditional role has been to maintain information about

families’ histories and significant events. The text goes on to say that although

technological changes have altered jalis’ role somewhat, jalis are still valued for

preserving the histories of their communities.

Choice B is incorrect because the text says nothing about jalis’ views of the

various tasks they perform. There is no information to support the idea that many

jalis prefer teaching to other tasks. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t

describe jalis as being sources of entertainment. Rather, jalis are presented as

valued sources of knowledge. Additionally, the text gives no indication of how

long jalis have been serving their communities. Choice D is incorrect because the

main focus of the text is on jalis’ role and their continued value despite the effects

of technology, not on what technology can now do. Although the text indicates

that jalis’ role has changed as a result of technological changes, the text doesn’t

present any specific information about technology performing tasks that jalis

once performed.

QUESTION 13

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea

of the text. According to the text, Eugene Wigner hypothesized that a crystal

could exist that would be composed of electrons and have a honeycomb-like

shape. The text goes on to say that the existence of the Wigner crystal remained

unconfirmed until Feng Wang and colleagues were able to make an impression of

one using two semiconductors and an ultrathin sheet of graphene. Thus, the main

idea is that researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the

existence of the Wigner crystal.

Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on one kind of crystal—the Wigner

crystal—and doesn’t discuss crystalline structures in general. And although the

text conveys that Wang and colleagues figured out a way to capture an image of

a Wigner crystal, it doesn’t address the idea of applying this approach to other

types of crystals. Choice C is incorrect because the text describes in general the

process Wang and colleagues followed to obtain an impression of the Wigner

crystal; it doesn’t address the relative importance of each component in that

process. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t state that researchers

had a hard time getting an impression of the Wigner crystal because of its

honeycomb structure. Nothing in the text indicates why it took so long to prove

the existence of this crystal or take an impression of it.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

9 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 14

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that

support the researchers’ conclusion that there is a growing interest among CEOs

in connecting with more departments in their companies. The graph shows the

average number of individuals reporting directly to CEOs during three different

time periods: the individuals are divided into managers and department leaders.

The average number of department leaders directly reporting to their CEO during

the 1991–1995 period was slightly more than three, during the 1996–2001 period

it was four, and during the 2001–2008 period it was almost seven. Thus, the

average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose over

the three periods studied, which suggests that CEOs were connecting with more

departments.

Choice A is incorrect because the average number of managers and department

leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose for both categories between the

1991–1995 and 2001–2008 periods; thus, it isn’t true that the average numbers

didn’t fluctuate. Choice B is incorrect because the average number of managers

reporting directly to their CEO was highest in the 2001–2008 period, not in the

1996–2001 period. Choice C is incorrect. Although it correctly describes a feature

of the graph, the observation that more department leaders than managers are

reporting to CEOs does not by itself address the question of whether CEOs are

connecting with more departments over time—to address that question, one

needs to know whether the number of department leaders reporting to CEOs is

increasing over time.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

10 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 15

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

weaken Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots improves the health

of eelgrass meadows by boosting genetic diversity. The text indicates that sea

otters damage eelgrass roots but that eelgrass meadows near Vancouver Island,

where there’s a large otter population, are comparatively healthy. When Foster

and her colleagues compared the Vancouver Island eelgrass meadows to those

that don’t have established otter populations, the researchers found that the

Vancouver Island meadows are more genetically diverse than the other meadows

are. This finding led Foster to hypothesize that damage to the eelgrass roots

encourages eelgrass reproduction, thereby improving genetic diversity and the

health of the meadows. If, however, other meadows not included in the study are

less healthy the larger the local otter population is and the longer the otters have

been in residence, that would suggest that damage to the eelgrass roots, which

would be expected to increase with the size and residential duration of the otter

population, isn’t leading meadows to be healthier. Such a finding would therefore

weaken Foster’s hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that small, recently introduced otter

populations are near other eelgrass meadows in the study wouldn’t weaken

Foster’s hypothesis. If otter populations were small and only recently established,

they wouldn’t be expected to have caused much damage to eelgrass roots, so

even if those eelgrass meadows were less healthy than the Vancouver Island

meadows, that wouldn’t undermine Foster’s hypothesis. In fact, it would be

consistent with Foster’s hypothesis since it would suggest that the greater

damage caused by larger, more established otter populations is associated with

healthier meadows. Choice B is incorrect because the existence of areas with

otters but without eelgrass meadows wouldn’t reveal anything about whether

the damage that otters cause to eelgrass roots ultimately benefits eelgrass

meadows. Choice D is incorrect because the health of plants other than eelgrass

would have no bearing on Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots

leads to greater genetic diversity and meadow health. It would be possible for

otters to have a negative effect on other plants while nevertheless improving the

health of eelgrass meadows by damaging eelgrass roots.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

11 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 16

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Zelda Fitzgerald’s contributions to literature. The text begins by

saying that many scholars view Zelda mainly in terms of her marriage to F. Scott

Fitzgerald and “don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right.” The text then

mentions a novel and “numerous short stories” that she wrote and that such

scholars tend to ignore. Therefore, those scholars who focus on Zelda only as

an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s

contributions to literature.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does mention that Zelda Fitzgerald

“likely influenced” her husband’s literary work, its focus is on Zelda’s own writing,

not on her husband’s writing or factors that might have influenced it. Choice C

is incorrect because the text does not discuss F. Scott and Zelda Fitzgerald’s

opinions of each other’s works. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does

suggest that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s works were “likely influenced in part” by his

marriage to Zelda, it does not discuss autobiographical interpretations of the

works of either F. Scott or Zelda.

QUESTION 17

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most

logically completes the text’s discussion of the study by Versace and colleagues.

The text indicates that newborn animals of some species are attracted to

faces and to stimuli that resemble faces. These species, the text says, share

two characteristics: they’re social and they practice parental care, meaning

that parents care for their young. The text goes on to describe Versace and

colleagues’ experiment, which showed that although Testudo tortoises aren’t

social and don’t practice parental care, tortoise hatchlings were attracted to a

stimulus that resembles a face. Since Versace and colleagues have shown that

a species that isn’t social and doesn’t practice parental care nevertheless has

the innate characteristic of being attracted to face-like stimuli, it follows that

this characteristic shouldn’t be assumed to be an adaptation related to social

interaction or parental care.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that the tortoise hatchlings were

attracted to the face-like stimuli (even though their species is solitary and doesn’t

practice parental care), not that they perceived the stimuli as threatening. ChoiceC

is incorrect because the phenomenon discussed in the text is an attraction to

faces and face-like stimuli on the part of newborn animals, which can’t show any

learned characteristics since they were just born. Additionally, the text tells us

that the tortoises Versace and colleagues studied aren’t social and don’t practice

parental care, so any findings about those tortoises wouldn’t be relevant to the

question of whether an attraction to faces in social species that practice parental

care is innate or learned. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication

that adult tortoises were presented with face-like stimuli and, if adults were in fact

tested, no information about how they responded is provided. Since no information

about adult tortoises’ responses is provided, no conclusion comparing those

responses to the responses of newly hatched tortoises can be supported.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

12 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 18

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text. The

text explains that the Cantares Mexicanos contains poems about the Aztec

Empire from before the Spanish invasion. Furthermore, it indicates that notes in

the collection attest that some of these poems predate the Spanish invasion,

while some customs depicted are likely Spanish in origin. The implication is that

some poems were composed before the invasion but the references to Spanish

customs could have come about only after the invasion, and thus that the

collection includes content that predates the invasion and also content from after

the invasion.

Choice B is incorrect because the text clearly indicates that the collection is in

Nahuatl, not Spanish, so the compilers’ unfamiliarity with Spanish is irrelevant to

whether the collection contains material composed after the Spanish invasion.

Choice C is incorrect because the text mentions only the Aztec Empire and Spain:

there is no information about the relationship of Aztec literature to any traditions

other than its own or Spain’s. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that

some of the poems make “inarguable references” to common Spanish customs,

which conflicts with the idea that these references can reasonably be attributed

to mere coincidence.

QUESTION 19

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most

logically follows from the text’s discussion of the study of capuchin monkeys’

cognitive abilities. The text explains that the study failed to distinguish between

outcomes for the tasks performed by the capuchin monkeys, such that simpler

tasks requiring less dexterity, or skill, were judged by the same criteria as

tasks that demanded more dexterity. Because the study didn’t account for this

discrepancy, the researchers might have assumed that observed differences in

performance were due to the abilities of the monkeys rather than the complexity

of the tasks. In other words, the results may suggest cognitive differences among

the monkeys even though such differences may not really exist.

Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on the fact that the tasks assigned

to the capuchin monkeys in the study varied in difficulty and that the variety

wasn’t taken into consideration. The text doesn’t suggest that the capuchin

monkeys couldn’t perform certain tasks, just that some tasks were more difficult

to do. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the study’s

results are indicative of the abilities of capuchin monkeys but not of other monkey

species; in fact, the text suggests that the results may not even be an accurate

reflection of capuchin monkeys’ abilities. Choice D is incorrect because the text

doesn’t indicate that the researchers compared results for artificial tasks with

those for tasks encountered in the wild, although the tasks described in the text—

sliding a panel and putting a straw in a bottle—are presumably artificial.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

13 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 20

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite

verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the

action of the subject (in this case, “embryos”), and this choice supplies the clause

with the finite present tense verb “enter” to indicate how the embryos achieve

diapause.

Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to enter” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite

participle “having entered” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “entering” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb.

QUESTION 21

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs

to express tense. In this choice, the past perfect verb “had doubled” properly

indicates that the doubling of the organization’s initial membership occurred

during a specific period before the present (between the organization’s founding

in 1967 and the end of the 1990s).

Choice A is incorrect because the present perfect verb “has doubled” doesn’t

indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred

during a specific period in the past. Choice C is incorrect because the present

tense verb “doubles” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial

membership occurred during a specific period in the past. Choice D is incorrect

because the future tense verb “will double” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s

doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past.

QUESTION 22

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation

use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “configurations” is

used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“The intense…

configurations”) and another (“TMAO…fish”). The supplementary phrase

(“ensuring…configurations”) modifies the main clause of the first sentence (“The

chemical…effect”), and “TMAO” is the subject of the second sentence.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences

(“The intense…configurations” and “TMAO…fish”) are fused without punctuation

and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice.

A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t

be used in this way to join sentences.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

14 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 23

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to

express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “experiences” is consistent

with the other present tense verbs (e.g., “connects” and “prepares”) used to

describe the events in Truong’s novels. Furthermore, it’s conventional to use the

present tense when discussing a literary work.

Choice A is incorrect because the past tense verb “experienced” isn’t consistent

with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.

Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had experienced”

isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in

Truong’s novels. Choice D is incorrect because the future progressive tense verb

“will be experiencing” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to

describe the events in Truong’s novels.

QUESTION 24

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and

possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun

“threads” correctly indicate that there is only one screw and it has multiple threads.

Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “threads,”

not the singular possessive noun “thread’s.” Choice B is incorrect because the

context requires the singular possessive noun “screw’s,” not the plural possessive

noun “screws’.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular

possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun “threads,” not the plural noun

“screws” or the plural possessive noun “threads.’”

QUESTION 25

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation

between a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. This choice correctly

uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“scholar…

materialism”) and the supplementary noun phrase (“an apt assessment”)

that describes Waid’s observation about how The House of Mirth depicts the

upper classes of New York society.

Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon and the conjunction “and” can’t

be used in this way to mark the boundary between a main clause and a

supplementary noun phrase. Choice B is incorrect. Joining the main clause

(“scholar…materialism”) and the following noun phrase with the conjunction “and”

results in a confusing and illogical sentence that suggests that the novel depicts

the upper classes of New York society as “an apt assessment,” which doesn’t

make sense in this context. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to mark the

boundary between the main clause and the supplementary noun phrase with

appropriate punctuation.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

15 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 26

Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination

of main clauses within a sentence. The semicolon is correctly used to join the

first main clause (“To humans…prey”) and the second main clause (“rather…

approach”). Further, the comma after the adverb “rather” is correctly used to

separate the adverb from the main clause (“the brightly…approach”) it modifies,

logically indicating that the information in this clause (how the spider’s behavior

appears to humans) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (how the

spider’s behavior does not appear to humans).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction

following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. ChoiceB

is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses

are fused without appropriate punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is

incorrect. Placing the comma between the first main clause “To humans…prey”

and the adverb “rather” illogically indicates that the information in the first main

clause is contrary to what came before, which doesn’t make sense in this context.

QUESTION 27

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural

and possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun “playa’s” and the plural

possessive noun “rocks’” correctly indicate that the sediment is that of one playa

(the Racetrack Playa) and that there are multiple rocks that have mysteriously

migrated across the sediment.

Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun

“playa’s” and the plural possessive noun “rocks’,” not the plural noun “playas” and

the singular possessive noun “rock’s.” Choice B is incorrect because the context

requires the plural possessive noun “rocks’,” not the plural noun “rocks.” Choice D

is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “playa’s,”

not the plural possessive noun “playas’.”

QUESTION 28

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between

a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject (“her 2019 novel Gingerbread”)

is immediately followed by a verb (“offers”), no punctuation is needed.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and

the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the

subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed

between the subject and the verb.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

16 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 29

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of microprobes,

noting that because microprobes weigh as little as 50 milligrams, they can explore

areas inaccessible to rovers.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that rovers can land successfully

on Mars despite their weight; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes.

Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that microprobes have

been proposed as an alternative to rovers, it doesn’t explain an advantage

of microprobes. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity

between microprobes and rovers; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes.

QUESTION 30

Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces Paradise to

an audience unfamiliar with the novel and its author, describing Paradise as a

historical novel about colonial East Africa and its author as the winner of the 2021

Nobel Prize in Literature.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence introduces Abdulrazak Gurnah to an

audience unfamiliar with the author, it doesn’t effectively introduce Paradise.

Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about

Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an audience unfamiliar

with its author. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides background

information about Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an

audience unfamiliar with its author.

QUESTION 31

Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the relative sizes of the

capital cities’ populations, noting that even though Hanoi has more people overall,

Ulaanbaatar accounts for a larger percentage of the people in its country.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates the population size of each

capital, it fails to emphasize their sizes relative to each other or to their countries’

overall population sizes. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence indicates the

population size of each capital, it fails to emphasize their sizes relative to each

other or to their countries’ overall population sizes. Choice D is incorrect. The

sentence emphasizes the population sizes of the two countries; it fails to mention

the capitals.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

17 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 32

Choice D is the best answer. The sentence explains how the House of Wisdom

preserved the world’s knowledge, noting that the library collected, translated, and

printed writings from different countries.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the House of Wisdom was

known for bringing together knowledge from around the world, it doesn’t explain

how the library preserved this knowledge. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence

makes a generalization about the scholars who were employed by the House

of Wisdom; it doesn’t explain how the library preserved the world’s knowledge.

Choice C is incorrect. The sentence identifies two authors whose writings were

preserved at the House of Wisdom; it doesn’t explain how the library preserved

the world’s knowledge.

QUESTION 33

Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses information from the notes

to make a generalization about the kind of study Glickman, Brown, and Song

conducted. Specifically, the sentence indicates that the study was of a kind that

used statistical methods to address questions of authorship within the field of

music.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence summarizes the methodology and

findings of a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization

about the kind of study conducted. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence

mentions the data and conclusion of a particular analysis of a single song; it

doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted. Choice C

is incorrect because the sentence focuses on a specific conclusion from a

particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind

of study conducted.

18 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

Reading and Writing

Module 2

(33 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice C is the best answer because it logically and precisely completes the

text’s discussion of The Mule Bone, a play that Zora Neale Hurston and Langston

Hughes wrote together. In this context, “collaboration” means working together

with someone to write a literary work. The text indicates that most writers prefer

to work alone and that working together destroyed the friendship between

Hurston and Hughes. This establishes that The Mule Bone is a relatively rare

example of collaboration in literature.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “characterization” would mean

a literary work’s portrayal of characters’ psychological experiences and

motivations, but the text doesn’t discuss characterization in The Mule Bone

specifically or in collaborative works more generally. Choice B is incorrect

because in this context, “interpretation” would mean the explanation of a literary

work’s meaning or significance, but the text doesn’t discuss how readers or critics

have interpreted The Mule Bone; instead, the text discusses how the play was

written collaboratively and how the writing process affected the two authors.

Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “commercialization” would mean

writing a literary work in such a way as to ensure its commercial appeal, but the

text never discusses commercial appeal as a factor in the writing of The Mule

Bone specifically or the writing of collaborative works more generally.

19 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 2

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion about recycling plastics. In this context, “inadequate” means not

satisfactory. The text indicates that the mechanical plastic-recycling process

affects the environment and causes “the loss of material quality.” The text

contrasts that with Chazovachii’s chemical plastic-recycling process, which is

cleaner and produces a desirable product. The text’s emphasis on the negative

aspects of mechanical recycling suggests that it is inadequate in terms of

environmental impact and the quality of the material the process yields.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “resilient” would mean able to

withstand difficulty and the text does not characterize the plastic-recycling

process as having this quality or describe any difficulties that these processes

might need to overcome. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “dynamic”

would mean constantly changing. Although the text suggests that there have been

changes in the field of recycling, as is the case with the advent of Chazovachii’s

chemical recycling process, there is nothing to suggest that the mechanical

process itself has changed or is prone to change. Choice D is incorrect because

in this context “satisfactory” would mean acceptable but not perfect. The text

mentions only shortcomings of the mechanical process (environmental effects

and lower material quality), so the text more strongly supports a negative view of

this process and provides no evidence that it would be considered satisfactory.

QUESTION 3

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the economist’s claim about sales of personal electronic devices.

In this context, “invalidate” most nearly means nullify or make invalid. The text

indicates that interruptions in the supply of microchips for personal electronics

“have challenged” the economist’s claim that sales of personal electronics will

show strong growth in the coming months. The text goes on to clarify the effect

of the delays on the economist’s projection, stating that the delays are very likely

to extend the time frame over which the projected growth in sales will occur.

This context suggests that the delays are unlikely to invalidate the economist’s

projection entirely—the delays will probably alter the time frame of the projection,

not nullify it or make it invalid.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that the delays are unlikely to “dispute,” or

argue against, the economist’s projection wouldn’t make sense. Since the delays

are an inanimate circumstance, they couldn’t argue against a prediction about the

sales of personal electronics. Choice B is incorrect because saying that the delays

are unlikely to “withdraw,” or remove from consideration, the economist’s projection

wouldn’t make sense. Although the economist could withdraw her projection

because of the delays, the delays themselves couldn’t withdraw her projection

since they’re an inanimate circumstance and thus can’t choose to remove

something from consideration. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in

the text to suggest that the delays will “underscore,” or emphasize, the economist’s

projection. Instead, the text suggests that the delays are likely to extend the time

frame of the economist’s projection but not to undermine the projection entirely.

20 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 4

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the art installation Anthem. In this context, “inventive” means

characterized by invention and creativity. The text explains that critics’ responses

to the installation involved praise for Tsang’s creative transformation of a space

into a dynamic exhibit with huge images and lots of sound. This context conveys

that the critics found the piece particularly creative.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that critics praised the

installation for being dynamic and including huge images and lots of sound, and

it wouldn’t make sense to describe such an exhibit as “restrained,” or limited and

not extravagant or showy. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense

to say that critics found the installation “inexplicable,” or incapable of being

explained or interpreted, since the critics were able to explain their praise for

the installation’s transformation of a space with huge images and lots of sound.

Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses on the idea that critics praised

Tsang for creatively transforming a space into a dynamic exhibit, not that they

found the installation “mystifying,” or bewildering and hard to understand. Nothing

in the text suggests that the critics couldn’t understand the piece.

QUESTION 5

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the kinds of mammals alive during the Mesozoic era. As used in

this context, “diverse” means to have a significant amount of variety. The text

indicates that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals can’t

be characterized in a certain way, then contrasts the view put forward by those

scientists with Luo’s research, which shows that Mesozoic mammals “weren’t all

ground-dwelling insectivores” and instead were “various.” This context suggests

that some scientists have viewed Mesozoic mammals as being all alike, or not a

very diverse group.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that some scientists

have suggested that Mesozoic mammals weren’t very “predatory,” or that they

didn’t prey on other animals, since the text establishes a contrast between what

some scientists have suggested and Luo’s research showing that Mesozoic

mammals “weren’t all ground-dwelling insectivores.” This context suggests that

some scientists have regarded Mesozoic mammals as all being insectivores,

or animals that prey on insects, not that some scientists have suggested that

Mesozoic mammals didn’t prey on other animals. Choice B is incorrect because it

wouldn’t make sense to say that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic

mammals weren’t very “obscure,” or concealed or not well known, since the

text establishes a contrast between what some scientists have suggested and

Luo’s research showing that Mesozoic mammals were a varied group. There’s no

contrast between saying that the mammals weren’t concealed or well known and

the mammals being varied. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense

to say that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals weren’t very

“localized,” or confined to a particular area, since the text establishes a contrast

21 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

between what some scientists have suggested and Luo’s research showing that

Mesozoic mammals were a varied group. There’s no contrast between saying

that the mammals weren’t localized and the mammals being varied. Although the

text mentions mammal fossils found in China, nothing in the discussion of Luo’s

research addresses the limits of Mesozoic mammal habitats.

QUESTION 6

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall

structure of the text. Throughout the text, the speaker characterizes nighttime as

if it were a person who wears clothing (“a garment” that is “velvet soft” and “violet

blue”) and a veil “over her face” and who moves her hands “slowly with their gem-

starred light” through her dark hair. Thus, the text is structured as an extended

comparison of night to a human being.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never mentions any particular location;

instead, it focuses on presenting a single description of night as a person with

certain clothing and features. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t

make any reference to the sun or sunrise; instead, it focuses on presenting a

single image of night as a person with certain clothing and features. Choice D is

incorrect. Rather than describing how nighttime changes seasonally (or in any

other way), the text presents a single image of night as a person with certain

clothing and features.

QUESTION 7

Choice A is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined portion

functions in the text as a whole. The text says that the increased production

quotas of food processing companies during World War II enabled employees to

make better bargains in exchange for their labor. The underlined portion presents

an example of this increased bargaining power: employees requested more

favorable benefits, and employers complied because they were under pressure

to fulfill the demanding terms of their contracts. Thus, the underlined portion of

the text elaborates on a claim about labor relations in a particular industry (food

processing) made earlier in the text.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication in the text that the economic

factors that influenced food processing also influenced other parts of the

economy; thus, the bargaining described in the underlined portion of the text

cannot be called an example of a trend. Choice C is incorrect because the

underlined portion supports the historical narrative of labor activism in food

processing that is sketched in the text, instead of noting an exception to that

narrative. Choice D is incorrect because while the underlined portion does

discuss the demands that workers made in exchange for their labor, it does not

discuss the identities of the workers.

22 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 8

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes how the underlined

sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text establishes that John has a

strong imagination and then goes on to describe the St. John River near John’s

home in the Florida woods. The underlined sentence depicts John sending twigs

sailing down the river while he imagines them reaching “Jacksonville, the sea, the

wide world,” where he wishes he could follow. This suggests that John longs to

expand his life experiences beyond the Florida woods.

Choice A is incorrect because the second and third sentences of the text provide

an extended description of the riverbank where John likes to go, whereas the

underlined sentence describes what John does at that location. Choice B is

incorrect because the first sentence of the text suggests that John’s behavior

“was puzzling” to others around him, whereas the underlined sentence concerns

the content of John’s imaginings. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined

sentence elaborates on John’s imagination but doesn’t mention any other

children to whom John could be compared.

QUESTION 9

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about Dorian that

is directly supported by the text. The narrator of the text says that when Dorian

sees his portrait, “his cheeks flushed for a moment with pleasure” and “a look

of joy came into his eyes.” The narrator goes on to say that Dorian looked at

the portrait “in wonder” and presents him as being so entranced by the portrait

that he doesn’t notice what Hallward is saying to him. These details support the

description of Dorian as being delighted by what he sees in the portrait.

Choice A is incorrect because Dorian isn’t depicted as interested in Hallward’s

opinion of the portrait; rather, he is so enraptured by the painting that he’s hardly

even aware of Hallward. Choice C is incorrect because the portrait of Dorian is

the only painting mentioned in the text. Although Dorian is depicted as being

delighted with this particular portrait, there’s no evidence in the text that he likes

portraits better than other kinds of paintings. Choice D is incorrect because

nothing in the text suggests that Dorian is uncertain about Hallward’s talent.

Instead, the text is focused on Dorian’s delight with the portrait.

QUESTION 10

Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively

support Charles and Stephens’s claim about how level of information affects

voters. The graph shows the probability of voting for both high- and low-

information voters in seven categories of political orientation. Charles and

Stephens claim that “the more informed voters are about politics…the more likely

they are to vote.” This statement correctly asserts that the graph shows a higher

probability of voting for high-information voters than for low-information voters

at each of the seven political orientations. Thus, this statement accurately cites

data from the graph that support Charles and Stephens’s claim about how level of

information affects voters.

23 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

Choice B is incorrect. Although this statement is correct that the only probability

in the graph below 50% is for low-information voters categorized as independent

(orientation 4), the claim in question is about the relative likelihood that low- and

high-information voters will vote, and without some reference to high-information

voters, this statement cannot help support such a comparison. Choice C is

incorrect. Although this statement is correct that the highest probabilities of

voting for low-information voters are at the ends of the orientation scale (1 and 7),

the claim in question is about the relative likelihood that low- and high-information

voters will vote, and without some reference to high-information voters, this

statement cannot help support such a comparison. Choice D is incorrect because

the graph does not give any information about how many people are represented

in any of the categories, so this statement is not based on data from the graph.

Furthermore, even if we did have this information, the claim is about how level

of information affects voters’ probability of voting, not whether they’re likely to

strongly identify with a particular political party.

QUESTION 11

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that

weaken the student’s conclusion about the reduction in the spider population in

the enclosure with lizards. The graph shows that the enclosure with lizards and the

enclosure without lizards each began with about 85 spiders, and that the number

of spiders in each enclosure fell over the 30 days of the study. The student’s claim

is that the reduction in spiders in the enclosure with lizards is “entirely attributable

to the presence of the lizards,” meaning that the spider population wouldn’t have

declined except for the presence of the lizards. This claim is weakened, however,

by the fact that the enclosure without lizards also saw a substantial reduction in

the number of spiders. Since the number of spiders fell in the enclosure without

lizards as well as in the enclosure with lizards, there must be some other factor

than just the presence of the lizards that contributed to the reduction in the spider

population.

Choice A is incorrect because the fact that the two enclosures started with the

same number of spiders is irrelevant to the claim that the reduction in spider

population by day 30 in the enclosure with lizards can be entirely attributed to

the lizards. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that the spider population in

the enclosure with lizards fell more between days 1 and 10 than in other periods

has nothing to do with the student’s claim that the reduction in spiders in that

enclosure by day 30 can be entirely attributed to the lizards. Choice D is incorrect.

Although it’s true that on day 30 the spider population was lower in the enclosure

with lizards than in the enclosure without lizards, this fact doesn’t weaken the

student’s claim that the reduction in the spider population in the enclosure with

lizards can be entirely attributed to the lizards. Indeed, the lower spider population

in the enclosure with lizards suggests that the lizards are contributing to the

reduction in the spider population, though the fact that the spider population

also fell substantially in the other enclosure means that the lizards aren’t the only

cause of the reduction.

24 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 12

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

most strongly support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised

closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were. The text explains that

Vaiglova, Liu, and their colleagues analyzed the chemical composition of sheep,

goat, and cattle bones from the Bronze Age in China in order to investigate the

animals’ domestication, or their adaptation from a wild state to a state in which

they existed in close connection with humans. According to the text, the team’s

analysis showed that sheep and goats of the era fed largely on wild plants,

whereas cattle fed on millet—importantly, a crop cultivated by humans. If analysis

of the animal bones shows that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, another

crop cultivated by humans in China during the Bronze Age, the finding would

support the team’s conclusion by offering additional evidence that cattle during

this era fed on human-grown crops—and, by extension, that humans raised cattle

relatively close to the settlements where they grew these crops, leaving goats and

sheep to roam farther away in areas with wild vegetation, uncultivated by humans.

Choice B is incorrect because if it were true that sheep’s and goats’ diets

consisted of small portions of millet, which the text states was a crop cultivated

by humans, the finding would suggest that sheep and goats were raised relatively

close to human settlements, weakening the team’s conclusion that cattle were

likely raised closer to those settlements than sheep and goats were. ChoiceC

is incorrect because the finding that cattle generally require more food and

nutrients than do sheep and goats wouldn’t support the team’s conclusion that

cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were.

Nothing in the text suggests that cattle were incapable of obtaining sufficient

food and nutrients without access to human-grown crops. Hence, even if cattle’s

diets are found to have different requirements than the diets of sheep and goats,

the cattle could have met those requirements from food located far from human

settlements. Choice D is incorrect because if it were true that the diets of sheep,

goats, and cattle varied based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement

could grow, the finding would weaken the team’s conclusion that cattle were

likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were, suggesting

instead that all three types of animals were raised close enough to human

settlements to feed on those settlements’ crops.

25 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 13

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the finding that, if true, would

best support Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s claim about mosasaurs. The

text states that Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s research on mosasaur tooth

enamel led them to conclude that mosasaurs were endothermic, which means

that they could live in waters at many different temperatures and still maintain

a stable body temperature. The researchers claim that endothermy enabled

mosasaurs to live in relatively cold waters near the poles. If several mosasaur

fossils have been found in areas that were near the poles during the period

when mosasaurs were alive and fossils of nonendothermic marine reptiles are

rare in such locations, that would support the researchers’ claim: it would show

that mosasaurs inhabited polar waters but nonendothermic marine mammals

tended not to, suggesting that endothermy may have been the characteristic that

enabled mosasaurs to include polar waters in their range.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that it’s easier to determine mosasaur body

temperatures from tooth enamel data than it is to determine nonendothermic

reptile body temperatures wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim. Whether one

research process is more difficult than another indicates nothing about the results

of those processes and therefore is irrelevant to the issue of where mosasaurs

lived and what enabled them to live in those locations. Choice B is incorrect

because finding roughly equal numbers of mosasaur and nonendothermic marine

reptile fossils in areas that were near the poles in the Late Cretaceous would

suggest that endothermy didn’t give mosasaurs any particular advantage when

it came to expanding their range to include relatively cold polar waters, thereby

weakening the researchers’ claim rather than supporting it. Choice D is incorrect

because finding that the temperature of seawater in the Late Cretaceous was

warmer than seawater today wouldn’t weaken the researchers’ claim. Seawater in

the Late Cretaceous could have been warmer than seawater today but still cold

enough for endothermy to be advantageous to mosasaurs, so this finding wouldn’t

provide enough information to either support or weaken the researchers’ claim.

26 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 14

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most

directly support the researchers’ hypothesis about the connection between the

dusky shark population decline and the eastern oyster population decline. The

text indicates that although dusky sharks don’t usually eat eastern oysters, they

do consume cownose rays, which are the main predators of eastern oysters.

An increase in the abundance of cownose rays in the region in response to a

decline in the abundance of dusky sharks would directly support the researchers’

hypothesis: a higher number of cownose rays would consume more eastern

oysters, driving down the oyster population.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding that there’s an association between

a decline in the regional abundance of some of dusky sharks’ prey and the

regional abundance of dusky sharks wouldn’t directly support the researchers’

hypothesis that a decline in dusky sharks has led to a decline in eastern oysters

in the region. Although such a finding might help explain why shark abundance

has declined, it would reveal nothing about whether the shark decline is related

to the oyster decline. Choice B is incorrect because a finding that eastern oyster

abundance tends to be greater when dusky sharks and cownose rays are present

than when only dusky sharks are present wouldn’t support the researchers’

hypothesis that a decline in dusky sharks has led to a decline in eastern oysters

in the region. The text indicates that the sharks prey on the rays, which are the

main predators of the oysters; if oyster abundance is found to be greater when

rays are present than when rays are absent, that would suggest that rays aren’t

keeping oyster abundance down, and thus that a decline in rays’ predators, which

would be expected to lead to an increase in the abundance of rays, wouldn’t bring

about a decline in oyster abundance as the researchers hypothesize. Choice C

is incorrect because a finding that consumption of eastern oysters by cownose

rays increased substantially before dusky sharks declined in regional abundance

wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that the decline in dusky sharks has

led to a decline in eastern oysters in the region. Such a finding would suggest that

some factor other than shark abundance led to an increase in rays’ consumption

of oysters and thus to a decrease in oyster abundance, thereby weakening the

researchers’ hypothesis.

27 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 15

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

weaken the claim made by people who favor the traditional view of voter behavior.

According to the text, people who favor that view believe that voting in an

election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates in that election.

If Washington and Mullainathan found that two years after an election, attitudes

toward the winning candidate were significantly more polarized among subjects

who had voted than among subjects who had been too young to vote, that would

suggest that the act of voting did have an effect on the voters’ attitudes toward

the candidates, which would undermine the claim that voting doesn’t change

voters’ attitudes.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding about links between subjects’ attitudes

and general political orientation, regardless of age and ability to vote, wouldn’t

address the presence or absence of changes in attitudes among those subjects

who did actually vote. Therefore, the finding wouldn’t have any bearing on the

claim that voting in an election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the

candidates in that election. Choice B is incorrect because a finding that positive

attitudes toward a winning candidate significantly increased in the two years

after the election among subjects who had been too young to vote would involve

only people who didn’t vote; therefore, the finding wouldn’t have any bearing

on the claim that when people do vote, the act of voting doesn’t change their

attitudes toward the candidates. Choice D is incorrect because the finding that

subjects in both groups were more likely to have negative attitudes than positive

attitudes toward the winning candidate two years after an election would reflect

all subjects’ attitudes at one particular time whether they voted or not, rather than

the presence or absence of a change in voters’ attitudes after voting. Therefore,

the finding would neither weaken nor strengthen the claim that voting in an

election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates.

28 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 16

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that

support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating holds promise

for improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells.

The text explains that perovskite solar cells’ efficiency at converting light into

electricity is diminished by their electron transport layer (ETL), which is applied

through spin coating, but that Taylor’s team devised a new spray coating method

for applying the ETL that improves its power conversion efficiency. The graph

displays data on the power conversion efficiency of solar cells in tests conducted

by Taylor’s team, with bars for both the highest- and lowest-performing ETLs in

two data categories: spray coating and spin coating. According to the graph, the

lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion

efficiency of between 14% and 16%, while the highest-performing ETL applied

through spin coating had a power conversion efficiency of less than 14%. These

data confirm that ETLs applied through novel spray coating are more efficient

than those applied though traditional spin coating. Thus, the data support Taylor

and colleagues’ conclusion about spray coating’s potential value.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this claim correctly describes the data in the

graph by stating that both the lowest-performing ETL applied through spin

coating and the lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a

power conversion efficiency greater than 10%, this relationship in the data

doesn’t support or relate to Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating

promises greater efficiency for solar cells than traditional spin coating does.

Choice C is incorrect. This claim does address the greater power conversion

efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating,

compared with the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating.

However, it also incorrectly cites the value for the efficiency of the highest-

performing ETL applied through spray coating as approximately 13%, instead of

a value between 14% and 16%, and the value for the efficiency of the highest-

performing ETL applied through spin coating as approximately 11%, instead

of a value between 12% and 14%, as shown in the graph. Choice D is incorrect

because Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion is based on the difference in the

power conversion efficiency of ETLs applied through spray coating and that of

ETLs applied through spin coating, not on the difference between the highest-

and lowest-performing ETLs applied through just spray coating.

29 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 17

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most

directly support the arts journalist’s claim about Enwezor’s work as a curator

and art historian. In the text, the arts journalist asserts that Enwezor wished not

just to focus on modern African artists but also to show “how their work fits into

the larger context of global modern art and art history,” or how their work relates

to artistic developments and work by other artists elsewhere in the world. The

description of Postwar: Art Between the Pacific and the Atlantic, 1945–1965

indicates that Enwezor and Siegel’s exhibition brought works by African artists

together with works by artists from other countries, thus supporting the arts

journalist’s claim that Enwezor sought to show works by African artists in a

context of global modern art and art history.

Choice A is incorrect because it describes a retrospective that wouldn’t support

the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern

African artists fit into the larger context of global modern art and art history.

The description of El Anatsui: Triumphant Scale indicates that the retrospective

focused only on the work of a single African artist, El Anatsui. The description

doesn’t suggest that the exhibition showed how El Anatsui’s works fit into a

global artistic context. Choice C is incorrect because it describes an exhibition

that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show

how works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global

modern art and art history. The description of The Short Century: Independence

and Liberation Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 indicates that the exhibition

showed how African artists were influenced by movements for independence

from European colonial powers following the Second World War. Although this

suggests that Enwezor intended the exhibition to place works by African artists

in a political context, it doesn’t indicate that the works were placed in a global

artistic context. Choice D is incorrect because it describes an exhibition that

wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how

works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global modern art

and art history. The description of In/sight: African Photographers, 1940 to the

Present indicates that the exhibition was intended to reveal the broad range of

approaches taken by African photographers, not that the exhibition showed how

photography by African artists fits into a global artistic context.

QUESTION 18

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite

verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform

the action of the subject (in this case, “people in the Americas”), and this choice

supplies the finite past perfect tense verb “have used” to indicate what people in

the Americas used the gourd for.

Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to use” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite

participle “having used” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

ChoiceD is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “using” doesn’t supply the

main clause with a finite verb.

30 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 19

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between

a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to

mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the

main clause (“others look to the past”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main

clause. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between

the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others…past”).

ChoiceD is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main

clause.

QUESTION 20

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to

express tense. In this choice, the simple past tense verb “suggested” properly

indicates that Zufall offered her suggestion for the product’s name in the past.

This verb tense is consistent with the previous sentence’s use of a simple past

tense verb (“advised”) to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker in the 1950s.

Choice B is incorrect because the present tense verb “suggests” doesn’t

indicate that Zufall offered her suggestion in the past. Choice C is incorrect

because the past perfect verb “had suggested” isn’t consistent with the previous

sentence’s use of the simple past tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice

to McVicker. Choice D is incorrect because the past progressive verb “was

suggesting” isn’t consistent with the previous sentence’s use of the simple past

tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker.

QUESTION 21

Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use

between two supplementary phrases following the coordinate clause (“but she…

mycology”). This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between

the supplementary noun phrase (“the study of fungi”) that defines the term

“mycology” and the supplementary participial phrase (“producing...London”) that

provides additional information about the extent to which Potter dedicated herself

to mycology.

Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join two

supplementary phrases following a coordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect

because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning

with “producing.” Choice C is incorrect. The lack of punctuation results in a

sentence that illogically suggests that the study of fungi is producing more than

350 paintings.

31 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 22

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier

placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “many critics” the subject of the

sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “in assessing…

Kurosawa.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that it is the critics—and

not another noun in the sentence—who assess Kurosawa’s films.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of

the noun phrase “Kurosawa’s…sources” immediately after the modifying phrase

illogically suggests that his use of Western literary sources is what assesses

Kurosawa’s films. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier.

The placement of the function word “there” immediately after the modifying

phrase illogically suggests that “there” is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.

ChoiceD is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement

of the noun phrase “the focus…critics” immediately after the modifying phrase

illogically suggests that the critics’ focus is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.

QUESTION 23

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of

items in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items

in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon

after “2009” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“the world’s…2009”)

and the second item (“an online…2010”) in the series of things that Hinson helped

create. Further, the comma after “Basic” correctly pairs with the comma after

“app,” and the comma after “network” correctly pairs with the comma after “TV”

to set off the supplemental elements (“Chickasaw Basic” and “Chickasaw TV”)

that provide the names of the app and the TV network, respectively. Altogether,

the punctuation in this choice results in a sentence that clearly indicates that

Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a

language course in 2015.

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that

makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network

in 2010, and a language course in 2015. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to

punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make

a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in

2015. Choice D is incorrect because the comma after “2009” doesn’t match the

semicolon used to separate the second and third items in the complex series.

32 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 24

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of

a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after “Springs” pairs with

the dash after “earth” to separate the supplementary element “in this case, the

porous rocks of the hills around Hot Springs” from the rest of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to

separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B

is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate

the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect

because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the

supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

QUESTION 25

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon

within a sentence. In this choice, the colon is used in a conventional way to

introduce the following description of how the number of jams available varied.

Choice B is incorrect because it creates a comma splice. A comma can’t be

used in this way to join two main clauses (“the number…varied” and “some…six”).

Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical and confusing sentence.

Using the conjunction “while” to join the main clause (“the number…varied”) with

the following clause’s description of the number of jams available suggests

that the variation in the number of jams is in contrast to some shoppers having

twenty-four options. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an illogical and

confusing sentence. Using “while” in this way suggests that the number of jams

available varied during the time in which some shoppers had twenty-four options

and others had six. The sentence makes clear, however, that what follows “varied”

is a description of the variation, not a separate, simultaneous occurrence.

QUESTION 26

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of

items in a complex series (a series including internal punctuation). In this choice,

the semicolon after “Lagos” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“The

Joys…Lagos”) and the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) in the series. Further, the

comma after “Marriage” correctly separates the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the

supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it.

Choice A is incorrect because the comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the

semicolon used later in the series to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”)

from the third item (“and…autobiography”). Choice C is incorrect because the

comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the semicolon used later in the series

to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) from the third item (“and…

autobiography”). Additionally, a colon can’t be used in this way to separate the title

“A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television… Nigeria”) that

describes it. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation

to separate the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a

television…Nigeria”) that describes it.

33 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 27

Choice A is the best answer. “Meanwhile” logically signals that the action

described in this sentence (Obinze’s move to London to pursue a career) is

simultaneous with the action described in the previous sentence (Ifemelu’s

move to the United States). The first sentence establishes that the actions take

place around the same time, referring to the characters’ “divergent experiences”

following high school.

Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the

information in this sentence about Obinze’s move to London is true despite the

previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the

first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel

experiences that occur around the same time. Choice C is incorrect because

“secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second

point or reason separate from the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to

the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and

Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time.

Choice D is incorrect because “in fact” illogically signals that the information

in this sentence emphasizes, modifies, or contradicts the previous information

about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence

establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences

that occur around the same time.

QUESTION 28

Choice B is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information

in this sentence—that tadpole shrimp embryos can pause development during

extended periods of drought—exemplifies the previous sentence’s claim that

organisms have evolved surprising adaptations to survive in adverse conditions.

Choice A is incorrect because “in contrast” illogically signals that the information

in this sentence contrasts with the claim about organisms in the previous

sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice C is incorrect because

“meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate

from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about organisms in the

previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice D is incorrect

because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is

a consequence, or result, of the claim about organisms in the previous sentence.

Instead, it exemplifies this claim.

34 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 29

Choice D is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that the information

in this sentence—that the Twentieth Amendment requires newly elected US

senators and representatives to be sworn in on January 3 —is separate from and

additional to the amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations.

Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information

in the sentence presents an alternative to or substitute for the Twentieth

Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Rather, the

sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one. Choice B

is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information in

the sentence exemplifies the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning

presidential inaugurations. Instead, the sentence presents a separate requirement

in addition to that one. Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically

signals that the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the

Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Instead,

the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one.

QUESTION 30

Choice D is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the information in

the sentence—that Dove situates Beulah’s life in the context of the US Civil Rights

Movement—is similar to the previous information about Thomas and the Great

Migration. Both sentences support the first sentence’s claim that Dove portrays

her characters in the context of broader historical narratives.

Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the

information about Beulah in this sentence provides specific details elaborating

on the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous

information about Thomas. Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals

that the information about Beulah in this sentence is a result or consequence

of the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous

information about Thomas. Choice C is incorrect because “regardless” illogically

signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence is true despite

the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous

information about Thomas.

QUESTION 31

Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the distance covered

by the Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike, noting that the turnpike, which

connected the two Pennsylvania cities in its name, was sixty-two miles long.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the significance of the turnpike;

it doesn’t emphasize the distance that the turnpike covered. Choice C is incorrect.

While the sentence mentions that the turnpike connected two Pennsylvania cities,

it doesn’t emphasize the specific distance covered by the turnpike. ChoiceD

is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes when the turnpike was built; it doesn’t

emphasize the distance that the turnpike covered.

35 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 32

Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the aim, or goal, of the

research study, noting what Terada set out to do: determine whether some of the

Moon’s oxygen was coming from Earth.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence focuses on how the Kaguya satellite collected

data; it doesn’t emphasize the aim of the research study. Choice B is incorrect.

While the sentence mentions what Terada was curious about before conducting

the research study, it doesn’t emphasize his study’s aim. Choice D is incorrect.

The sentence presents the research study’s conclusion; it doesn’t emphasize the

study’s aim.

QUESTION 33

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its

methodology (that is, the researcher’s approach to the problem), explaining that

Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake on

the ducklings’ energy expenditure.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it

doesn’t present the study and its methodology. Choice C is incorrect. While the

sentence provides general information about Yuan’s study, it doesn’t present the

study’s methodology. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings

of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

36 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Math

Module 1

(27 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice C is correct. For the given line graph, the percent of cars for sale at a used

car lot on a given day is represented on the vertical axis. The percent of cars for

sale is the smallest when the height of the line graph is the lowest. The lowest

height of the line graph occurs for cars with a model year of

2014

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 2

Choice C is correct. It’s given that

out of every

100

beads that the machine

produces have a defect. It follows that if the machine produces

beads, then the

number of beads that have a defect is

100

, for some constant

. If a bead

produced by the machine will be selected at random, the probability of selecting

a bead that has a defect is given by the number of beads with a defect,

100

divided by the number of beads produced by the machine,

. Therefore, the

probability of selecting a bead that has a defect is

100

, or

100

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

QUESTION 3

Choice D is correct. It’s given that line

is parallel to line

, and line

intersects

both lines. It follows that line

is a transversal. When two lines are parallel and

intersected by a transversal, exterior angles on the same side of the transversal

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

are supplementary. Thus,

x +33 =180

. Subtracting

from both sides of this

equation yields

x =147

. Therefore, the value of

147

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 4

Choice D is correct. The y-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point at

which the graph crosses the y-axis. The graph shown crosses the y-axis at the

point

(

0, 8

)

. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph shown is

(

0, 8

)

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5

Choice C is correct. It’s given that

(

)

is the total cost, in dollars, to lease a

car from this dealership with a monthly payment of

dollars. Therefore, the

total cost, in dollars, to lease the car when the monthly payment is

$400

represented by the value of

(

)

when

x = 400

. Substituting

400

for

in the

equation

( )

fx 36x=+1,000

yields

(

400

)

=36

(

400

)

+1,000

, or

(

400

)

=15,400

Thus, when the monthly payment is

$400

, the total cost to lease a car is

$15,400

.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6

The correct answer is

180

. The perimeter of a polygon is equal to the sum of the

lengths of the sides of the polygon. It’s given that each side of the square has

a length of

. Since a square is a polygon with

sides, the perimeter of this

square is

45+45+45+45

, or

180

QUESTION 7

The correct answer is

. Multiplying both sides of the given equation by

x +6

results in

55=x

(

x+6

)

. Applying the distributive property of multiplication to

the right-hand side of this equation results in

55 6xx=+

. Subtracting

from both sides of this equation results in

0 6 55xx=+-

. The right-hand side

of this equation can be rewritten by factoring. The two values that multiply to

-55

and add to

are

and

-5

. It follows that the equation

0 6 55xx=+-

can be rewritten as

( )( )

11 5xx=+ -

. Setting each factor equal to

yields

two equations:

x +11=0

and

50x -=

. Subtracting

from both sides of the

equation

x +11=0

results in

x =-11

. Adding

to both sides of the equation

50x -=

results in

x = 5

. Therefore, the positive solution to the given equation

is

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 8

Choice A is correct. If the object travels

108

centimeters at a speed of

centimeters per second, the time of travel can be determined by dividing

the total distance by the speed. This results in

108 centimeters

12 centimeters/second

, which is

seconds.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 9

Choice B is correct. The mean of a data set is the sum of the values in the data set

divided by the number of values in the data set. It follows that the mean of data

set X is

5991

+++

, or

, and the mean of data set Y is

5 9 9 13 27

+++ +

, or

12.6

. Since

is less than

12.6

, the mean of data set X is less than the mean of data set Y.

Alternate approach: Data set Y consists of the

values in data set X and one

additional value,

. Since the additional value,

, is larger than any value in data

set X, the mean of data set X is less than the mean of data set Y.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 10

Choice A is correct. It’s given that the rocket contained

467,000 kilograms (kg)

of propellant before launch and had

362,105 kg

remaining exactly

seconds

after launch. Finding the difference between the amount, in

, of propellant

before launch and the remaining amount, in

, of propellant after launch

gives the amount, in

, of propellant burned during the

seconds:

467,000 362,105 104,895-=

. Dividing the amount of propellant burned by

the number of seconds yields

104,895

4,995=

. Thus, an average of

4,995 kg

propellant burned each second after launch.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from finding the amount of propellant

burned, rather than the amount of pr

opellant burned each second.

QUESTION 11

Choice B is correct. Multiplying both sides of the given equation by

yields

(

)(

4x 2

)

( )(

)

, or

16x +8 =48

. Therefore, the value of

16x +8

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 12

Choice D is correct. It’s given that the equation

4.9 7 9h tt=- + +

represents

this situation, where

is the height, in meters, of the object

seconds after it is

kicked. It follows that the height, in meters, from which the object was kicked is

the value of

when

t = 0

. Substituting

for

in the equation

4.9 7 9h tt=- + +

yields

( ) ( )

4.9 0 7 0 9h =- + +

, or

h = 9

. Therefore, the object was kicked from a

height of

meters.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 13

The correct answer is

. The given equation can be rewritten in the

form

( ) ( )

f x ax h k= -+

, where

, and

are constants. When

a > 0

is the value of

for which

(

)

reaches its minimum. The given equation

can be rewritten as

( )

4 126fx x x=-+

, which is equivalent to

( )

( ) ( )

50 50

4 126fx x x

æö

= -+ - +

èø

. This equation can be rewritten as

( )

4 126fx x

æö

= -- +

èø

, or

( )

4 4 126fx x=-- +

, which is

equivalent to

( )

25 121

4fx x=--

. Therefore,

h =

, so the value of

for which

(

)

reaches its minimum is

. Note that 25/4 and 6.25 are examples of ways to

enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 14

The correct answer is

182

. Let

represent the number of small candles the

owner can purchase, and let



represent the number of large candles the owner

can purchase. It’s given that the owner pays

$4.90

per candle to purchase small

candles and

$11.60

per candle to purchase large candles. Therefore, the owner

pays

4.90s

dollars for

small candles and

11.60

dollars for



large candles,

which means the owner pays a total of

4.90 +11.60s



dollars to purchase

candles. It’s given that the owner budgets

$2,200

to purchase candles.

Therefore,

4.90 11.60 2,200s +£

. It’s also given that the owner must purchase a

minimum of

200

candles. Therefore,



200s +³

. The inequalities

4.90 11.60 2,200s +£

and



200s +³

can be combined into one compound

inequality by rewriting the second inequality so that its left-hand side is equivalent

to the left-hand side of the first inequality. Subtracting



from both sides of the

inequality



200s +³

yields



200s ³-

. Multiplying both sides of this inequality

4.90

yields

4.90 4.90

(

200 

)

s ³-

, or

4.90 980 4.90



s ³-

. Adding

11.60

both sides of this inequality yields

4.90 11.60



980 4.90



11.60s + ³- +

, or

4.90 11.60980 6.70s + ³+

. This inequality can be combined with the inequality

4.90 11.60 2,200s +£

, which yields the compound inequality

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

980 6.70



4.90 11.60 2,200s+£+ £

. It follows that

980 6.70



2,200+£

Subtracting

980

from both sides of this inequality yields

6.70 2,200£

. Dividing

both sides of this inequality by

6.70

yields approximately

 182.09£

. Since the

number of large candles the owner purchases must be a whole number, the

maximum number of large candles the owner can purchase is the largest whole

number less than

182.09

, which is

182

QUESTION 15

Choice D is correct. Since

is a linear function, it can be defined by an equation

of the form

(

)

=ax +b

, where

and

are constants. It’s given that

(

)

= 8

Substituting

for

and

for

(

)

in the equation

(

)

=ax +b

yields

8=a

(

)

, or

8 = b

. Substituting

for

in the equation

(

)

=ax +b

yields

(

)

=ax +8

. It’s given that

(

)

=12

. Substituting

for

and

for

(

)

in the

equation

(

)

=ax +8

yields

12=a

(

)

, or

12 =a +8

. Subtracting

from both

sides of this equation yields

a = 4

. Substituting

for

in the equation

(

)

=ax +8

yields

(

)

=4x+8

. Therefore, an equation that defines

(

)

=4x+8

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 16

Choice A is correct. The function

gives the area of the rectangle, in

, if its

width is

w ft

. Since the value of

(

)

is the value of

(

)

w =14

, it follows

that

(

)

=1,176

means that

(

)

is

1,176

w =14

. In the given context, this

means that if the width of the rectangle is

14 ft

, then the area of the rectangle is

1,176 ft

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

interpreting

(

)

as the width, in

, of the rectangle if its area is

, rather than

as the area, in

, of the rectangle if its width is

w ft

QUESTION 17

Choice B is correct. Since

and

are diameters of the circle shown,

,

, and

are radii of the circle and are therefore congruent. Since

∠

SOP

and

∠

ROQ

are vertical angles, they are congruent. Therefore, arc

and arc

are formed by congruent radii and have the same angle measure, so

they are congruent arcs. Similarly,

∠

SOR

and

∠

POQ

are vertical angles, so they

are congruent. Therefore, arc

and arc

are formed by congruent radii and

have the same angle measure, so they are congruent arcs. Let

represent the

length of arc

. Since arc

and arc

are congruent arcs, the length of arc

can also be represented by

. It’s given that the length of arc

is twice the

length of arc

. Therefore, the length of arc

can be represented by the

expression

. Since arc

and arc

are congruent arcs, the length of arc

can also be represented by

. This gives the expression

x+x+2x+

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Since it’s given that the circumference is

144

, the expression

x+x+2x+2x

equal to

144

. Thus

2 2 144xxxx++ + =

, or

6 144x =

. Dividing both sides of

this equation by

yields

24x =

. Therefore, the length of arc

( )

2 24

, or

Choice A is incorrect. This is the length of arc

, not arc

. ChoiceC is

incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. ChoiceD is

incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18

Choice C is correct. Let

represent the number of children in a whale-watching

tour group. Let

represent the number of adults in this group. Because it’s given

that

people are in a group and the group consists of adults and children, it

must be true that

x+y=21

. Since the company’s revenue is

dollars per

child, the total revenue from

children in this group was

60x

dollars. Since

the company’s revenue is

dollars per adult, the total revenue from

adults

in this group was

80y

dollars. Because it’s given that the total revenue for this

group was

1,440

dollars, it must be true that

60x+80y=1,440

. The equations

x+y=21

and

60x+80y=1,440

form a linear system of equations that can

be solved to find the value of

, which represents the number of children in

the group, using the elimination method. Multiplying both sides of the equation

x+y=21

yields

80x+80y=1,680

. Subtracting

60x+80y=1,440

from

80x+80y=1,680

yields

( ) ( )

80 80 60 80 1,680 1,440xy xy+-+= -

, which is

equivalent to

80 60 80 80 240xxyy-+-=

, or

20x = 240

. Dividing both sides

of this equation by

yields

x =12

. Therefore,

people in the group were

children.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect. This is the number of adults in the group, not the number

of children in the group. ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or

calculation errors.

QUESTION 19

Choice A is correct. The x-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point on

the graph where

y = 0

. It’s given that function

is defined by

(

)

=4x+28

Therefore, the equation representing the graph of

y= h

(

)

y=4x+28

Substituting

for

in the equation

y=4x+28

yields

0 =4x +28

. Subtracting

from both sides of this equation yields

28 4x-=

. Dividing both sides of this

equation by

yields

7 x-=

. Therefore, the x-intercept of the graph of

y= h

(

)

in the xy-plane is

( )

7, 0-

. It’s given that the x-intercept of the graph of

y= h

(

)

is

(

a, 0

)

. Therefore,

7a =-

. The y-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point on

the graph where

x = 0

. Substituting

for

in the equation

y=4x+28

yields

y =4

(

)

+28

, or

y = 28

. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph of

y= h

(

)

in the

xy-plane is

(

0, 28

)

. It’s given that the y-intercept of the graph of

y= h

(

)

is

(

0, b

)

Therefore,

b = 28

. If

7a =-

and

b = 28

, then the value of

a+ b

7 28-+

, or

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of

, not

. Choice C is incorrect and

may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the

value of

ab-+

, not

a+ b

QUESTION 20

The correct answer is

. Since each term of the given expression,

2 42 208xx x++

, has a factor of

, the expression can be rewritten as

( )

( ) ( )

2 2 21 2 104xx x x x++

, or

( )

2 21 104xx x++

. Since the values

and

have a sum of

and a product of

104

, the expression

21 104xx++

can be

factored as

(

x+8

)(

x+13

)

. Therefore, the given expression can be factored as

(

x+8

)(

x+13

)

. It follows that the factors of the given expression are

x +8

, and

x +13

. Of these factors, only

x +8

and

x +13

are of the form

x+ b

where

is a positive constant. Therefore, the possible values of

are

and

Thus, the smallest possible value of

QUESTION 21

The correct answer is

. According to the first equation in the given system, the

value of

1.5-

. Substituting

1.5-

for

in the second equation in the given

system yields

1.5 8x xa- =++

. Adding

1.5

to both sides of this equation yields

081.5x xa= + ++

. If the given system has exactly one distinct real solution, it

follows that

081.5x xa= + ++

has exactly one distinct real solution. A quadratic

equation in the form

0 px qx r= ++

, where

, and

are constants, has

exactly one distinct real solution if and only if the discriminant,

4q pr-

, is equal

. The equation

081.5x xa= + ++

is in this form, where

p =1

q = 8

, and

1.5

. Therefore, the discriminant of the equation

081.5x xa= + ++

( ) ( )( )

8 4 1 1.5a-+

, or

58 4a-

. Setting the discriminant equal to

to solve for

yields

58 4 0a-=

. Adding

to both sides of this equation yields

58 = 4a

Dividing both sides of this equation by

yields

, or

. Therefore, if the

given system of equations has exactly one distinct real solution, the value of

. Note that 29/2 and 14.5 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 22

Choice B is correct. It’s given that

( ) ( )( )( )

654fxxxx=+ + -

and

( )

3y fx=-

Substituting

( )( )( )

654xxx++-

for

(

)

in the equation

( )

3y fx=-

yields

( )( )( )

6 5 43yxxx= + + --

. Substituting

for

in this equation yields

( )( )( )

66 65 64 3y =-+ -+ -- -

, or

3y =-

. Substituting

for

in the equation

( )( )( )

6 5 43yxxx= + + --

yields

( )( )( )

56 55 54 3y =-+ -+ -- -

, or

3y =-

Substituting

for

in the equation

( )( )( )

6 5 43yxxx= + + --

yields

( )( )( )

4 64 54 4 3y =+ + --

, or

3y =-

. Therefore, when

6x =-

then

3y =-

when

5x =-

then

3y =-

, and when

x = 4

then

3y =-

. Thus, the table of values

in choice B represents

( )

3y fx=-

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Choice A is incorrect. This table represents

3yx=-

rather than

( )

3y fx=-

Choice C is incorrect. This table represents

y=x3

rather than

( )

3y fx=-

Choice D is incorrect. This table represents

y=f

(

)

rather than

( )

3y fx=-

QUESTION 23

Choice C is correct. Since the value of

(

)

decreases by a fixed percentage,

45%

, for every increase in the value of

, the function

is a decreasing

exponential function. A decreasing exponential function can be written in the form

( )

100

qx a=-

, where

is the value of

(

)

and the value of

(

)

decreases

for every increase in the value of

. If

(

)

=14

, then

a =14

. Since

the value of

(

)

decreases by

45%

for every increase in the value of

p = 45

. Substituting

for

and

for

in the equation

( )

100

qx a=-

yields

( )

100

14 1

qx=-

, which is equivalent to

( ) ( )

14 1 0.45

qx=-

, or

( ) ( )

14 0.55

qx=

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice D is incorrect. For this function, the value of

(

)

increases, rather than

decreases, by

45%

for every increase in the value of

QUESTION 24

Choice A is correct. An equation for the graph shown can be written in slope-

intercept form

y =mx +b

, where

is the slope of the graph and its y-intercept

(

0, b

)

. Since the y-intercept of the graph shown is

(

0, 2

)

, the value of

Since the graph also passes through the point

(

4, 1

)

, the slope can be calculated

as

, or

. Therefore, the value of

. Substituting

for

and

for

in the equation

y =mx +b

yields

2yx=- +

. It’s given that an equation

for the graph shown is

y=f

(

)

+14

. Substituting

(

)

+14

for

in the equation

2yx=- +

 yields

14 2fx x+ =- +

( )

. Subtracting

from both sides of this

equation yields

( )

12fx x=- -

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 25

Choice B is correct. It’s given that right triangle

RST

is similar to triangle

UVW

where

corresponds to

and

corresponds to

. It’s given that the side

lengths of the right triangle

RST

are

RS = 20

ST = 48

, and

TR =52

Corresponding angles in similar triangles are equal. It follows that the measure of

angle

is equal to the measure of angle

.The hypotenuse of a right triangle is

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

the longest side. It follows that the hypotenuse of triangle

RST

is side

. The

hypotenuse of a right triangle is the side opposite the right angle. Therefore, angle

is a right angle. The adjacent side of an acute angle in a right triangle is the side

closest to the angle that is not the hypotenuse. It follows that the adjacent side of

angle

is side

. The opposite side of an acute angle in a right triangle is the

side across from the acute angle. It follows that the opposite side of angle

side

. The tangent of an acute angle in a right triangle is the ratio of the length

of the opposite side to the length of the adjacent side. Therefore,

tan

T =

Substituting

for

and

for

in this equation yields

tan T =

, or

tan T =

. The tangents of two acute angles with equal measures are equal.

Since the measure of angle

is equal to the measure of angle

, it follows that

tan T= tan W

. Substituting

for

tan T

in this equation yields

tan W=

Therefore, the value of

tan W

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of

sin W

. Choice C is incorrect. This is the

value of

cos W

. Choice D is incorrect. This is the value of

tan W

QUESTION 26

Choice A is correct. It’s given that

represents the total wall area, in square feet.

Since the walls of the room will be painted twice, the amount of paint, in gallons,

needs to cover

square feet. It’s also given that one gallon of paint will cover

220

square feet. Dividing the total area, in square feet, of the surface to be

painted by the number of square feet covered by one gallon of paint gives the

number of gallons of paint that will be needed. Dividing

220

yields

220

110

. Therefore, the equation that represents the total amount of paint

, in

gallons, needed to paint the walls of the room twice is

110

P =

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result fr

om finding the amount of paint needed to

paint the walls once rather than twice. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 27

The correct answer is

9.87

. It’s given that the number

110%

greater than the

number

. It follows that

( )

110

100

1ab=+

, or

a= 2.1b

. It’s also given that the number

90%

less than

. It follows that

( )

100

1 47b =-

, or

b = 0.1

(

)

, which

yields

b = 4.7

. Substituting

4.7

for

in the equation

a= 2.1b

yields

a = 2.1

(

4.7

)

which is equivalent to

a = 9.87

. Therefore, the value of

9.87

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Math

Module 2

(27 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice A is correct. It’s given that

20%

of the students surveyed responded that

they intend to enroll in the study program. Therefore, the proportion of students

in Spanish club who intend to enroll in the study program, based on the survey,

0.20

. Since there are

total students in Spanish club, the best estimate for

the total number of these students who intend to enroll in the study program is

(

0.20

)

, or

Choice B is incorrect. This is the best estimate for the percentage, rather than

the total number, of students in Spanish club who intend to enroll in the study

program. Choice C is incorrect. This is the best estimate for the total number of

Spanish club students who do not intend to enroll in the study program. Choice D

is incorrect. This is the total number of students in Spanish club.

QUESTION 2

Choice A is correct. Since Jay walks at a speed of

miles per hour for

hours,

Jay walks a total of

miles. Since Jay runs at a speed of

miles per hour for

hours, Jay runs a total of

miles. Therefore, the total number of miles Jay

travels can be represented by

3w+5r

. Since the combined total number of miles

, the equation

3w+5r=14

represents this situation.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. ChoiceC is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 3

Choice A is correct. The line of best fit shown intersects the y-axis at a positive

y-value and has a positive slope. The graph of an equation of the form

y =a +bx

where

and

are constants, intersects the y-axis at a y-value of

and has a

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

slope of

. Of the given choices, only choice A represents a line that intersects

the y-axis at a positive y-value,

2.8

, and has a positive slope,

1.7

Choice B is incorrect. This equation represents a line that has a negative slope,

not a positive slope. Choice C is incorrect. This equation represents a line that

intersects the y-axis at a negative y-value, not a positive y-value. Choice D is

incorrect. This equation represents a line that intersects the y-axis at a negative

y-value, not a positive y-value, and has a negative slope, not a positive slope.

QUESTION 4

Choice D is correct. Because the graph of

y=f

(

)

is shown, the value of

(

)

is the value of

on the graph that corresponds with

x = 0

. When

x = 0

, the

corresponding value of

. Therefore, the value of

(

)

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. ChoiceB is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 5

Choice B is correct. Applying the commutative property of multiplication, the

expression

(

-1

)(

)

can be rewritten as

(

)(

4 5

)(

-1

)

. For

positive values of

(

)(

)

= x

a+b

. Therefore, the expression

(

)(

4 5

)(

)

can be rewritten as

(

4+1

)(

4+5

)(

-+13

)

, or

Choice A is incorrect and may result from multiplying, not adding, the exponents.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6

The correct answer is

. The median of a data set with an odd number of values

is the middle value of the set when the values are ordered from least to greatest.

Because the given data set consists of nine values that are ordered from least to

greatest, the median is the fifth value in the data set. Therefore, the median of the

data shown is

QUESTION 7

The correct answer is

. Subtracting

from both sides of the given equation

yields

x = 55

. Therefore, the value of

QUESTION 8

Choice C is correct. Adding the second equation of the given system to the first

equation yields

5x+-

(

4xy+

)

=15+-

(

)

, which is equivalent to

x+y=13

. So

the value of

x+ y

47 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect. This is the value of

(

)

. ChoiceD is incorrect and may

result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 9

Choice A is correct. It’s given that the function

models the number of gallons

that remain from a full gas tank in a car after driving

miles. In the given

function

(

)

=-0.05m+12.1

, the coefficient of

-0.05

. This means that

for every increase in the value of

, the value of

(

)

decreases by

0.05

. It

follows that for each mile driven, there is a decrease of

0.05

gallons of gasoline.

Therefore,

0.05

gallons of gasoline are used to drive each mile.

Choice B is incorrect and represents the number of gallons of gasoline in a full

gas tank. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is

incorrect and may result from conceptual errors.

QUESTION 10

Choice C is correct. Multiplying each side of the given equation by

yields the

equivalent equation

11x

. Dividing each side of this equation by yields

77b

, or

x =

77b

Choice A is incorrect. This equation is not equivalent to the given equation.

ChoiceB is incorrect. This equation is not equivalent to the given equation.

ChoiceD is incorrect. This equation is not equivalent to the given equation.

QUESTION 11

Choice B is correct. Since the point

(

x, y

)

is an intersection point of the graphs of

the given equations in the xy-plane, the pair

(

x, y

)

should satisfy both equations,

and thus is a solution of the given system. According to the first equation,

y = 76

Substituting

in place of

in the second equation yields

x -=5 76

. Adding

to both sides of this equation yields

= 81

. Taking the square root of both

sides of this equation yields two solutions:

x = 9

and

x =-9

. Of these two

solutions, only

-9

is given as a choice.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect. This is the value of coordinate

, rather than

, of the

intersection point

(

x, y

)

QUESTION 12

Choice A is correct. It’s given that the point

(

x, 53

)

is a solution to the given

system of inequalities in the xy-plane. This means that the coordinates of the

point, when substituted for the variables

and

, make both of the inequalities

in the system true. Substituting

for

in the inequality

y >14

yields

53>14

which is true. Substituting

for

in the inequality

4x+y<18

yields

4x +53<18

. Subtracting

from both sides of this inequality yields

4x <-35

48 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Dividing both sides of this inequality by

yields

x <-8.75

. Therefore,

must be

a value less than

-8.75

. Of the given choices, only

-9

is less than

-8.75

Choice B is incorrect. Substituting

-5

for

and

for

in the inequality

4x+y<18

yields

(

-+5

)

53<18

, or

33<18

, which is not true. Choice C is

incorrect. Substituting

for

and

for

in the inequality

4x+y<18

yields

(

)

+<53 18

, or

73<18

, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect. Substituting

for

and

for

in the inequality

4x+y<18

yields

(

)

+<53 18

, or

89<18

, which is not true.

QUESTION 13

The correct answer is

240

. It’s given that

80%

of the

300

seeds sprouted.

Therefore, the number of seeds that sprouted can be calculated by multiplying

the number of seeds that were planted by

100

, which gives

(

300

100

)

, or

240

QUESTION 14

The correct answer is

. Substituting

for

(

)

in the given equationyields

8= 4x

. Dividing the left- and right-hand sides of this equation by

yields

x = 2

Therefore, the value of

when

(

)

= 8

QUESTION 15

Choice B is correct. The given expression has a common factor of

in the

denominator, so the expression can be rewritten as

8xx

(

--73

) (

)

(

)

. The three

terms in this expression have a common factor of

(

x -7

)

. Since it’s given that

x >7

can’t be equal to

, which means

(

x -7

)

can’t be equal to

. Therefore,

each term in the expression,

8xx

(

--73

) (

)

(

)

, can be divided by

(

x -7

)

, which

gives

83x-

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrectand may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrectand may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 16

Choice C is correct. It’s given that line

is perpendicular to line

in the

xy-plane. This means that the slope of line

is the negative reciprocal of the

slope of line

. If the equation for line

is rewritten in slope-intercept form

y =mx +b

, where

and

are constants, then

is the slope of the line and

(

0, b

)

is its y-intercept. Subtracting

18x

from both sides of the equation

2y+18x=9

yields

2y=-18 +9x

. Dividing both sides of this equation by

yields

y=-9 +

. It follows that the slope of line

-9

. The negative

reciprocal of a number is

-1

divided by the number. Therefore, the negative

reciprocal of

-9

is

-1

-9

, or

. Thus, the slope of line

49 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect. This is the slope of line

, not line

. Choice B is incorrect.

This is the reciprocal, not the negative reciprocal, of the slope of line

. Choice D

is incorrect. This is the negative, not the negative reciprocal, of the slope of line

QUESTION 17

Choice D is correct. The y-intercept of a graph in the ty-plane is the point where

t = 0

. For the given function

, they-intercept of the graph of

y= f

(

)

in the

ty-plane can be found by substituting

for

in the equation

y 8,000

(

0.65

)

which gives

y 8,000

(

0.65

)

. This is equivalent to

y = 8,000

(

)

, or

y = 8,000

Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph of

y= f

(

)

(

0, 8,000

)

. It’s given that the

function

models the number of coupons a company sent to their customers at

the end of each year. Therefore,

(

)

represents the estimated number of

coupons the company sent to their customers at the end of each year. It’s also

given that

represents the number of years since the end of

1998

. Therefore,

t = 0

represents

years since the end of

1998

, or the end of

1998

. Thus, the

best interpretation of the y-intercept of the graph of

y= f

(

)

isthat the estimated

number of coupons the company sent to their customers at the end of

1998

was

8,000

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18

Choice C is correct. It’s given that triangle

XYZ

is similar to triangle

RST

, such

that

, and

correspond to

, and

, respectively. Since corresponding

angles of similar triangles are congruent, it follows that the measure of

∠

congruent to the measure of

∠

. It’s given that the measure of

∠

Therefore, the measure of

∠

is

Choice A is incorrect and may result from a conceptual error. ChoiceB is

incorrect. This is half the measure of

∠

. ChoiceD is incorrect. This is twice the

measure of

∠

QUESTION 19

Choice B is correct. A system of two linear equations in two variables,

and

, has no solution if the lines represented by the equations in the xy-plane

are parallel and distinct. Lines represented by equations in standard form,

Ax +By =C

and

Dx +Ey =F

, are parallel if the coefficients for

and

in one

equation are proportional to the corresponding coefficients in the other

equation, meaning

; and the lines are distinct if the constants are not

proportional, meaning

is not equal to

. The given equation,

y=6x+18

can be written in standard form by subtracting

from both sides of the

equation to yield

-6xy+=18

. Therefore, the given equation can be written in the

form

Ax +By =C

, where

A =-6

B =1

, and

C =18

. The equation in choice B,

50 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

-6xy+=22

, is written in the form

Dx +Ey =F

, where

D =-6

E =1

, and

F = 22

Therefore,

-6

A -6

, which can be rewritten as

;

B 1

, which can be rewritten

; and

C 18

, which can be rewritten as

C 9

. Since

,

, and

is not equal to

, it follows that the given equation and the equation

-6xy+=22

are parallel and distinct. Therefore, a system of two linear equations consisting of

the given equation and the equation

-6xy+=22

has no solution. Thus,

theequation in choice B could be the second equation in the system.

Choice A is incorrect. The equation

-6xy+=18

and the given equation

represent the same line in the xy-plane. Therefore, a system of these linear

equations would have infinitely many solutions, rather than no solution.ChoiceC

is incorrect. The equation

-12xy+=36

and the given equation represent

lines in the xy-plane that are distinct and not parallel. Therefore, a system of

these linear equations would have exactly one solution, rather than no solution.

ChoiceD is incorrect. The equation

-12xy+=18

and the given equation

represent lines in the xy-plane that are distinct and not parallel. Therefore, a

system of these linear equations would haveexactly one solution, rather than no

solution.

QUESTION 20

The correct answer is

986

. The area,

, of a rectangle is given by

A= w

, where



is the length of the rectangle and

is its width. It’s given that the length of the

rectangle is

centimeters (cm) and the width is

cm. Substituting

for



and

for

in the equation

A= w

yields

A =

(

)(

)

, or

A = 986

. Therefore,

the area, in square centimeters, of this rectangle is

986

QUESTION 21

The correct answer is

. The first equation in the given system of equations

defines

4x +1

. Substituting

4x +1

for

in the second equation in the given

system of equations yields

(

4x+=1

)

15 8x-

. Applying the distributive property

on the left-hand side of this equation yields

16x+4 =15 8x-

. Subtracting

15x

from each side of this equation yields

x +4=-8

. Subtracting

from each side

of this equation yields

x =-12

. Substituting

-12

for

in the first equation of

the given system of equations yields

y =-4

(

)

,or

y =-47

. Substituting

-12

for

and

-47

for

into the expression

x- y

yields

-12--

(

)

, or

QUESTION 22

Choice D is correct. The number of solutions of a quadratic equation of the form

+bx +=c 0

, where

, and

are constants, can be determined by the

value of the discriminant,

-4ac

. If the value of the discriminant is positive, then

the quadratic equation has exactly two distinct real solutions. If the value of the

discriminant is equal to zero, then the quadratic equation has exactly one real

solution. If the value of the discriminant is negative, then the quadratic equation

51 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

■

MATH: MODULE 2

has zero real solutions. In the given equation,

+10x +16 = 0

a = 5

b =10

and

c =16

. Substituting these values for

, and

in

-4ac

yields

(

)

-4 5

( )(

)

, or

-220

. Since the value of its discriminant is negative, the given

equation has zero real solutions. Therefore, the number of distinct real solutions

the given equation has is zero.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B  is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 23

Choice B is correct. Since

mile is equal to

1,760

yards,

square mileis equal

to 1,760

, or

3,097,600

, square yards. It’s given that the park has an area of

11,863,808

square yards. Therefore, the park has an area of

1 square mile

(

11,863,808 square yards

)

( )

3,097,600 square yards

, or

11,863,808

3,097,600

square miles. Thus,

the area, in square miles, of the park is

3.83

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect. This is the square root of the area of the park in square

yards, not the area of the park in square miles. ChoiceD is incorrect and may

result from converting

11,863,808

yards to miles, rather than converting

11,863,808

square yards to square miles.

QUESTION 24

Choice C is correct. The graph of the equation

(

xh-

)

(

y -k

)

= r

in the

xy-plane is a circle with center

(

h, k

)

and a radius of length

. The radius of a

circle is the distance from the center of the circle to any point on the circle. If a

circle in the xy-plane intersects the y-axis at exactly one point, then the

perpendicular distance from the center of the circle to this point on the y-axis

must be equal to the length of the circle’s radius. It follows that the x-coordinate

of the circle’s center must be equivalent to the length of the circle’s radius. In

other words, if the graph of

(

)

(

y -k

)

= r

is a circle that intersects the

y-axis at exactly one point, then

r = h

must be true. The equation in choice C is

2 2

(

x -4

)

(

y -9

)

=16

, or

(

x -4

)

(

y -9

)

= 4

. This equation is in the form

(

)

+ y -k

)

= r

, where

h = 4

k = 9

, and

r = 4

, and represents a circle in the

xy-plane with center

(

4,9

)

and radius of length

. Substituting

for

and

for

in the equation

r = h

yields

4 = 4

, or

4= 4

, which is true. Therefore, the

equation in choice C represents a circle in the xy-plane that intersects the y-axis

at exactly one point.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the equation of a circle that does not intersect

the y-axis at any point. Choice B is incorrect. This is an equation of a circle that

intersects the x-axis, not the y-axis, at exactly one point. Choice D is incorrect.

This is the equation of a circle with the center located on the y-axis and thus

intersects the y-axis at exactly two points, not exactly one point.

52 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

■

MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 25

Choice C is correct. Since angles

and

each have the same measure and

angles

and

each have the same measure, triangles

ABC

and

DEF

are

similar, where side

corresponds to side

. To determine whether two

similar triangles are congruent, it is sufficient to determine whether one pair of

corresponding sides are congruent. Therefore, to determine whether triangles

ABC

and

DEF

are congruent, it is sufficient to determine whether sides

and

have equal length. Thus, knowing the lengths of

and

is sufficient to

determine whether triangle

ABC

is congruent to triangle

DEF

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is

incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect. The given

information is sufficient to determine that triangles

ABC

and

DEF

are similar, but

not whether they are congruent.

QUESTION 26

Choice B is correct. The histograms shown have the same shape, but data setA

contains values between

and

and data set B contains values between

and

. Thus, the mean of data set A is greater than the mean of data set B.

Therefore, the smallest possible difference between the mean of data set A

and the mean of data set B is the difference between the smallest possible

mean of data set A and the greatest possible mean of data set B. In data set A,

since there are

integers in the interval greater than or equal to

but less

than

integers greater than or equal to

but less than

integers

greater than or equal to

but less than

, and

integers greater than or

equal to

but less than

, the smallest possible mean for data set A is

(

3 • 20

)

(

4 • 30

)

(

7 • 40

)

(

9 • 50

)

. In data set B, since there are

integers greater than

or equal to

but less than

integers greater than or equal to

but less

than

integers greater than or equal to

but less than

, and

integers

greater than or equal to

but less than

, the largest possible mean for

data set B is

3 • 19

)

(

4 • 29

)

(

7 • 39

)

(

9 • 49

)(

. Therefore, the smallest possible

difference between the mean of data set A and the mean of data set B is

(

3 • 20

)

(

4 • 30

)

(

7 • 40

)

(

9 • 50

) (

3 • 19

)

(

4 • 29

)

(

7 • 39

)

(

9 • 49

)

23 23

, which is equivalent to

(

3 • 20

) (

3 + 4 •

) (

4 + 7 •

) (

7 39 + 9 • 50

) (

9- • 19

) (

30 - • 29

) (

40 - •

) (

- • 49

)

. This expression can be

rewritten as

(

29 + 39 +

(

49 3 20

(

-19

)

+4 30-

)

7 40

(

)

9 50-

)

, or

, which is equal to

Therefore, the smallest possible difference between the mean of data set A and

the mean of data set B is

Choice A is incorrect. This is the smallest possible difference between the ranges,

not the means, of the data sets. Choic

e C is incorrect. This is the difference

between the greatest possible mean, not the smallest possible mean, of data

set A and the greatest possible mean of data set B. Choice D is incorrect. This is

the smallest possible difference between the sum of the values in data set A and

53 SAT PRACTICE TEST #2 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

■

MATH: MODULE 2

the sum of the values in data set B, not the smallest possible difference between

the means.

QUESTION 27

The correct answer is

113

. It’s given that the legs of a right triangle have lengths

centimeters and

centimeters. In a right triangle, the square of the length of

the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the two legs.

It follows that if

represents the length, in centimeters, of the hypotenuse of

the right triangle,

2 2 2

h = 24 +21 . This equation is equivalent to

h =1,017. Taking

the square root of each side of this equation yields

h = 1,017

. This equation

can be rewritten as

h = 9 • 113

, or

h = 9 • 113

. This equation is equivalent to

h = 3

113

. It’s given that the length of the triangle’s hypotenuse, in centimeters,

can be written in the form

3 d

. It follows that the value of

113

Scoring Your Paper

SAT Practice Test #2

IMPORTANT: This guide is for students who completed a paper version of the digital SAT practice test.

The scoring method used for this nondigital version isn’t exactly the same as the digital version.

1 Total Score

400–1600 Scale

Reading

and Writing

Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

Math

Total Score

2 Section

Scores

200–800 Scale

Congratulations on completing an SAT

practice test.

To score your test, follow the instructions in this guide.

Scores Overview

Each assessment in the SAT Suite (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT®, PSAT

™

10, and PSAT

™

8/9) reports test

scores on a common scale.

For more details about scores, visit sat.org/scores.

The College Board Assessment Design & Development team developed the practice tests

using the same processes and review standards they used when developing the actual SAT.

How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores

The worksheets on pages 4 and 5 help you calculate your test scores.

GET SET UP



In addition to your practice test, you’ll need

the conversion tables and answer key at the

end of this guide.

Have your students make time to take

the practice test.

It is one of the best ways to get ready

for the SAT.

The SAT

Practice Test for

Classroom Use

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores



RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWE R UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420 440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWE R UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690 710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740 760

65 770 780

66 790 800

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE



MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE



TOTAL

SAT SCORE



+ =

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE



READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE



Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

SCORE YOUR PRACTICE TEST



Compare your answers to the answer key on

page 4, and count your total correct answers

for each section. Write the number of correct

answers for each section in the answer key

at the bottom of that section.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Answer Key

Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

Math

Module 1 Module 2

Reading and Writing

Module 1 Module 2

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

READING AND WRITING SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 C

4 B

5 D

6 C

7 B

8 D

9 D

10 A

11 A

12 A

13 A

14 D

15 C

16 B

17 B

18 A

19 A

20 A

21 B

22 A

23 C

24 C

25 C

26 D

27 C

28 C

29 B

30 C

31 C

32 D

33 D

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 C

2 B

3 D

4 B

5 C

6 C

7 A

8 D

9 B

10 A

11 B

12 A

13 C

14 D

15 C

16 B

17 B

18 B

19 C

20 A

21 D

22 A

23 C

24 C

25 A

26 B

27 A

28 B

29 D

30 D

31 A

32 C

33 B

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 C

2 C

3 D

4 D

5 C

6 180

7 5

8 A

9 B

10 A

11 B

12 D

13 25/4; 6.25

14 182

15 D

16 A

17 B

18 C

19 A

20 8

21 14.5; 29/2

22 B

23 C

24 A

25 B

26 A

27 9.87; 987/100

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 A

2 A

3 A

4 D

5 B

6 79

7 55

8 C

9 A

10 C

11 B

12 A

13 240

14 2

15 B

16 C

17 D

18 C

19 B

20 986

21 35

22 D

23 B

24 C

25 C

26 B

27 113

CALCULATE YOUR SCORES



Using your marked-up answer key and the

conversion tables, follow the directions on

page 5 to get your section and test scores.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores



RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWE R UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420 440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWE R UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690 710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740 760

65 770 780

66 790 800

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE



MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE



TOTAL

SAT SCORE



+ =

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE



READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE



Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

Get Section and

Total Scores

Your total score on an SAT practice test is the sum of your scores in the

modules for both the Reading and Writing and Math sections. To get your

total score, you’ll convert what we call the “raw score” for each section—

the number of questions you got right in that section—into the “scaled

score” for that section, and then calculate the total score.

GET YOUR READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Reading and Writing section score

(it’s on a scale of 200–800).



Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



To determine your Reading and Writing raw score, add the number

of correct answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Reading and Writing section score.

GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Math section score (it’s on a scale of 200–800).



Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



To determine your Math raw score, add the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Math section score.

GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE

Add your Reading and Writing section score to your Math section score.

The result is your total score on the SAT practice test, on a scale of 400–1600.

1 Total Score

400–1600 Scale

2 Section

Scores

200–800 Scale

Reading

and Writing

Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

Math

Total Score

Your total score on the SAT practice test

is the sum of your Reading and Writing

section score and your Math section score.

Use the worksheets on

pages 4 and 5 to calculate your

section and total scores.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Answer Key

Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

Math

Module 1 Module 2

Reading and Writing

Module 1 Module 2

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 C

4 B

5 D

6 C

7 B

8 D

9 D

10 A

11 A

12 A

13 A

14 D

15 C

16 B

17 B

18 A

19 A

20 A

21 B

22 A

23 C

24 C

25 C

26 D

27 C

28 C

29 B

30 C

31 C

32 D

33 D

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 C

2 B

3 D

4 B

5 C

6 C

7 A

8 D

9 B

10 A

11 B

12 A

13 C

14 D

15 C

16 B

17 B

18 B

19 C

20 A

21 D

22 A

23 C

24 C

25 A

26 B

27 A

28 B

29 D

30 D

31 A

32 C

33 B

READING AND WRITING SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 C

2 C

3 D

4 D

5 C

6 180

7 5

8 A

9 B

10 A

11 B

12 D

13 25/4; 6.25

14 182

15 D

16 A

17 B

18 C

19 A

20 8

21 14.5; 29/2

22 B

23 C

24 A

25 B

26 A

27 9.87; 987/100

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 A

2 A

3 A

4 D

5 B

6 79

7 55

8 C

9 A

10 C

11 B

12 A

13 240

14 2

15 B

16 C

17 D

18 C

19 B

20 986

21 35

22 D

23 B

24 C

25 C

26 B

27 113

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0–27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0–27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

CONVERT

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

W SCORE

(0–22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0–22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(0–44)

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

TOTAL

SAT SCORE

(400–1600)

Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420

440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

eading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690

710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740 760

65 770 780

66 790 800